Redactare programă și teste: [604983]
GHIDUL CANDIDAT: [anonimizat]
2015
UNIVERSITATEA „BABEȘ -BOLYAI”
FACULTATEA DE LITERE
CENTRUL DE LIMBI MODERNE ALPHA
GHIDUL CANDIDAT: [anonimizat]
2015
– 2 –
Coordonator: DINA VÎLCU
Redactare programă și teste:
CARMEN BORBELY
DIANA COTRĂU
CRISTINA FELEA
DORINA LOGHIN
ADRIAN RADU
ADRIANA TODEA
Concepție machetă teste: ADRIAN RADU
– 3 –
CUPRINS
Prezentarea Centrului Alpha
5
Cursuri ALPHA
6
Teste ALPHA
7
Grila de autoevaluare
10
Programa pentru limba engleză 12
Înțelegere – ascultare (Ia ) 12
Înțelegere – citire (Ic) 12
Scriere (S) 13
Vorbire – exprimare (Ve) 14
Vorbire – conversație (Vc) 14
Bibliografie recomandată
14
Sample tests 15
Listening 15
Reading 29
Writing 60
Speaking 67
– 5 –
CENTRUL DE LIMBI MODERNE ALPHA
Str. Horea nr. 31, Cluj -Napoca, Cod : 400202
Telefax: 0264 43 41 64; 53 49 48, int. 5616
E-mail: alpha @lett.ubbcluj.ro
Web: www.alpha.ubbcluj.ro
PREZENTAREA CENTRULUI ALPHA
Centrul ALPHA a fost înființat în luna martie a anului 2002 și funcționează în cadrul
Facultății de Litere, cu specialiști ai catedrelor de limbi străine ale facultății și cu colaboratori
externi. Centrul de limbi moderne ALPHA oferă servicii lingvistice atât pentru st udenții și
angajații universității, cât și pentru alte categorii de solicitanți, din afara Universității Babeș –
Bolyai.
CURSURI
Cursuri generale de limbi străine, la trei nivele
Cursuri de pregătire pentru testul de competen ță lingvistică
Cursuri de pregătire pentru examene internaționale (Cambridge, TOEFL,
IELTS, Sprachdiplom, Accès au DALF)
Cursuri personalizate la cerere
TESTE
Teste de competență lingvistică generală pentru burse, angajări, p romovări
Teste de competență lingvistică specială pentru licență, masterat, doctorat
Teste de plasare (pentru alcătuirea grupelor de studiu)
Teste de diagnosticare
SERVICII DE CONSULTANȚĂ PENTRU LIMBA ROMÂNĂ
SERVICII DE TRADUCERE
Program cu publicul: LUNI – VINERI, între orele 14.00-18.00
– 6 –
CURSURI ALPHA
Centrul ALPHA organizează mai multe categorii de cursuri, care acoperă o gamă largă d e nevoi și
interese lingvistice specifice, pentru publicul interesat.
Înscrierea la orice categorie de cursuri se face completând fișa de pe pagina web a Centrului și
expediind -o electronic la adresa: alpha @lett.ubbcluj.ro
Taxele diferă în funcție de tipul de curs pentru care se optează și se plătesc după prima întâlnire
dintre cursanți și profesor, când se stabilesc formațiunea de lucru, orarul și sala unde vor avea loc
cursurile. Pentru informații refe ritoare la cuantumul taxei și modalitățile de plată accesați
alpha.ubbcluj.ro/cursuri
Costul cursului se stabilește în funcție de numărul de cursanți din grupă. Un număr mai mare de
cursanți duce la scăderea proporțională a prețului.
Locul de desfășura re a cursurilor este sediul Facultății de Litere.
CURSURI DE PREGĂTIRE PENTRU TESTUL ALPHA DE COMPETENȚĂ
LINGVISTICĂ ( MODUL DE 30 DE ORE)
Limba engle ză
Limba franceză
Limba germană
Limba rusă
Limba italiană
Limba spaniolă
CURSURI GENERALE DE LIMBI STR ĂINE (MODUL DE 30 DE ORE)
LA TREI NIVELURI: Începători, Intermediari, Avansați
Limba engleză Limba franceză Limba germană Limba spaniolă
Limba rusă Limba italiană Limba suedeză
Limba norvegiană Limba olandeză Limba finlandeză Limba daneză
Limba coreeană Limba japoneză Limba ucraineană
Limba română Limba portugheză Limba maghiară
CURSURI CAMBRIDGE (MODUL DE 60 ORE)
CURSURI TOEFL (MODUL DE 60 ORE)
CURSURI SPRACHDIPLOM (MODUL DE 60 ORE)
CURSURI ACCÈS AU DALF (MO DUL DE 60 ORE)
CURSURI LA CERERE – MODULE CU DURATĂ VARIABILĂ
– 7 – TESTE ALPHA
Centrul ALPHA organizează teste de competență lingvistică și eliberează certificate acceptate
sau necesare pentru diverse situații academice și profesionale:
admitere la facul tate (pentru o alt ă linie de studiu dec ât linia română)
acces în licență
admitere la masterat
admitere la doctorat
burse
deplasări în străinătate
angajări, avansări pe post etc.
Aceste teste și certificate sunt armonizate cu Cadrul european comun de referin ță pentru limbi și beneficia ză de
recunoaștere internațională.
TIPURI DE TESTE Certificat
Test de competență lingvistică generală
Test de competență lingvistică specială
Test de plasare (pentru alcătuirea formațiunilor de studiu)
Testele de Competență Lingvistică Generală și Specială
urmăresc testarea a 5 competențe lingvistice, conform Grilei de evaluare din Cadrul european comun de
referință pentru limbi , astfel:
Grila de evaluare*
NIVEL
COMPETENȚE
B1
B2
C1
C2
Ia: Înțelegere -Ascultare
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
Ic: Înțelegere -Citire
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
Vc: Vorbire -Conversație
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
Ve: Vorbire -Exprimare
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
S: Scriere
0
1
2
3
4
5
6
Punctaj: 5 competențe x 6 puncte maximum = 30 puncte
* Vezi descrierea detaliat ă de la paginile 10-11. Certificatele ALPHA sunt valabile
doi ani
de la data eliberării.
– 8 – STRUCTURA ȘI SUCCESIUNEA PROBELOR TESTULUI DE COMPETENȚĂ
LINGVISTICĂ ALPHA
Probe Timp Punctaj
Proba audio
Înțelegere -Ascultare (Ia) 20 min. 0-6
…………………………………………………………………………………………..
Proba scrisă
1. Înțelegerea unui text scris (Ic) 35 min. 0-6
2. Scriere (S) 0-6
a. răspuns la un e -mail 20 min.
b. eseu argumentativ 35 min.
…………………………………………………………………………………………..
Proba orală
1. Exprimare liberă (Ve) 2 min. 0-6
2. Conversație (Vc) 3 min. 0-6
Punctaj maxim: 30
ACTELE NECESARE SUSȚINERII TESTULUI :
1. buletin/carte de identitate sau pașaport;
2. carnet de student vizat pe anul în curs;
3. chitanță în valoare de 60 RON pentru stude nții și angajații UBB/ 120 RON pentru alți solicitanți.
Pentru informații referitoare la cuantumul taxei și modalitățile de plată accesați
alpha.ubbcluj.ro/certificate_teste/taxa.php
REZULTATELE :
Se afi șează lista candidaților, cu punctajele obținu te, la 3 zile lucrătoare după susținerea testului, la
Centrul ALPHA și pe I nternet, la adresa www.alpha.ubbcluj.ro
ELIBERAREA CERTIFICATELOR :
Certificatele pot fi ridicate la 8 zile lucrătoare de la afișarea rezultatelor, la sediul Centrului ALPHA , în
fiecare zi lucrătoare, între orele 11:00 și 15:00.
Certificatele se pot elibera și în regim de urgență, după 2 zile lucrătoare de la afișarea rezultatelor pe
site. Taxa de urgență repr ezintă jumătate din valoarea taxei de test.
Certificatele se eliberează pentru persoanele care au susținut toate cele trei probe ale testului de
competență lingvistică.
Certificatele se pot ridica fie personal , pe baza actului de identitate (buletin, ca rte de identitate,
pașaport), fie de către o altă persoană, cu copia actului de identitate al candidatului.
– 9 – TESTUL DE COMPETENȚĂ LINGVISTICĂ GENERALĂ
Pentru a afla datele în care se organizează testele de competență lingvistică generală , care se
finaliz ează cu obținerea certificatului de competență lingvistică, vă rugăm să consultați pagina web a
Centrului: www.alpha.ubbcluj.ro
Programare obligatorie : Candidatul se va programa în avans cu cel puțin 48 de or e, online, pe pagina
web a Centrului: www.alpha.ubbcluj.ro
TESTUL DE COMPETENȚĂ LINGVISTICĂ SPECIAL Ă
Centrul ALPHA organizează proba de limbă străină pentru eliberarea certificatelor de competență
lingvistic ă acceptate pentru înscrierea la licență și pentru admiterea la programele de masterat și
doctorat din cadrul UBB, în următoarele domenii:
Biologie și Geologie, Chimie și Inginerie Chimică, Drept, Educație Fizică și Sport, Fizică,
Geografie, Istorie și F ilosofie, Litere, Matematică și Informatică, Psihologie și Științe ale
Educației, Sociologie și Asistență Socială, Știința și Ingineria Mediului, Științe Politice,
Administrative și ale Comunicării, Teatru și Televiziune, Teologie Greco -Catolică, Teologie
Ortodoxă, Teologie Romano -Catolică, Teologie Reformată
PROGRAMAREA TESTULUI
Testele de competență lingvistică specială (pentru admitere, licență, masterat, doctorat) se
organizează conform unei programări care se anunță prin afi șaj, la sediile facultățil or și al Rectoratului
UBB, la începutul fiecărui semestru.
Programarea candidaților este obligatorie . Candidatul se va programa online, în avans cu cel puțin
48 de ore, pe pagina web a Centrului.
Informații suplimentare privind desfășurarea testului s e pot obține la sediul Centrului ALPHA și la
adresa www.alpha.ubbcluj.ro .
Modelele de teste ALPHA , pentru limbile englez ă, franceză, germană, rusă, italia nă, s paniolă și
română pot fi accesate pe Internet, la adresa www.alpha.ubbcluj.ro .
Ghidul Candidatului se poate procura, contra cost, de la sediul Centrului.
Vă recomandăm să vă prezentați pentru susținerea testului
cu 15 minute
mai dev reme de ora programată.
Nu se permite accesul în sala de testare fără actul de identitate, carnetul de
student UBB (unde e cazul) și chitanța de plată a taxei.
– 10 – Competență GRILA DE AUTOEVALUAR E (Conform Cadrului European
Probe A1=1 p A2 = 2 p B1 (nivel prag) = 3 p
1
Înțelegere –
ascultare
Ia Pot să înțeleg expresii
cunoscute și propoziții
foarte simple referitoare la
mine, la familia mea și la
împrejurări concrete, când
se vorbește rar și cu
claritate. Pot să înțeleg expresii și
cuvinte uzuale frecvent
întâlnite, pe teme ce au
relevanță imediată pentru
mine personal (de ex.,
informații simple despre
mine și despre familia mea,
cumpărături, zona unde
locuiesc, activitatea
profesională). Pot să înțeleg
punctele esențiale din
anunțuri și mesaje scurte,
simple și clar e. Pot să înțeleg punctele
esențiale în vorbirea standard
clară pe teme familiare,
referitoare la activitatea
profesională, școală,
petrecerea timpului liber etc.
Pot să înțeleg ideea
principală din multe programe
radio și TV pe teme de
actualitate sau de interes
personal sau profesional,
dacă sunt prezentate într -o
manieră relativ clară și lentă.
2
Înțelegere –
citire
Ic Pot să înțeleg nume
cunoscute, cuvinte și
propoziții simple, de
exemplu din anunțuri, afișe
sau cataloage. Pot să citesc texte f oarte
scurte și simple. Pot să
găsesc informații simple și
previzibile în diverse
materiale cotidiene (de ex.,
reclame, prospecte, meniuri,
orare) și pot să înțeleg
scrisori personale scurte și
simple. Pot să înțeleg texte redactate
în principal într -un limbaj
uzual sau referitor la
activitatea mea profesională.
Pot să înțeleg descrierea
evenimentelor, exprimarea
sentimentelor și a urărilor din
scrisori personale.
3
Vorbire
Participare
la
Conversație
Vc Pot să comunic într -o
conversație simplă, cu
condiția ca interlocutorul să
fie dispus să repete sau să
reformuleze frazele sale
într-un ritm mai lent și să
mă ajute să formulez ceea
ce încerc să spun. Pot să
formulez întrebări simple
pe teme cunoscute sau de
necesitate imediată și să
răspund la aseme nea
întrebări. Pot să comunic în situații
simple și uzuale care
presupun un schimb de
informații simplu și direct pe
teme și despre activități
familiare. Pot să particip la
discuții foarte scurte, chiar
dacă în general nu înțeleg
suficient pentru a purta o
conversație. Pot să fac față în majoritatea
situațiilor care pot să apară în
cursul unei călătorii printr -o
regiune unde limba este
vorbită. Pot să particip fără
pregătire prealabilă la o
conversație pe teme
familiare, de interes personal
sau referitoar e la viața
cotidiană (de ex., familie,
petrecerea timpului liber,
activitatea profesională,
călătorie și actualități).
4
Vorbire
Exprimare
liberă
Ve Pot să utilizez expresii și
fraze simple pentru a
descrie unde locuiesc și
oameni pe care îi cuno sc. Pot să utilizez o serie de
expresii și fraze pentru o
descriere simplă a familiei
mele și a altor oameni, a
condițiilor de viață, a studiilor
și a activității profesionale
prezente sau recente. Pot să leg expresii și să mă
exprim coerent într -o manie ră
simplă pentru a descrie
experiențe și evenimente,
vise, speranțe și obiective.
Pot să îmi argumentez și să
explic pe scurt opiniile și
planurile. Pot să povestesc o
întâmplare sau să relatez
intriga unei cărți sau a unui
film și să -mi exprim reacțiile.
5 Scriere
Exprimare
scrisă
S Pot să scriu o carte poștală
scurtă și simplă, de
exemplu cu salutări din
vacanță. Pot să completez
formulare cu detalii
personale, de exemplu
numele, naționalitatea și
adresa pe un formular de
hotel. Pot să scriu mesa je scurte și
simple. Pot să scriu o
scrisoare personală foarte
simplă, de exemplu cu
mulțumiri. Pot să scriu un text simplu și
coerent pe teme familiare sau
de interes personal. Pot să
scriu scrisori personale
descriind experiențe și
impresii.
5 probe x 6 puncte maximum la fiecare prob ă = 30 de puncte maximum
– 11 – Comun de Referință pentru Limbi )
B2 = 4 p
C1 = 5 p C2 = 6 p
Pot să înțeleg conferințe și discursuri
destul de lungi și să urmăresc chiar
și o argumentație complexă dacă
subiectul îmi este rel ativ cunoscut.
Pot să înțeleg majoritatea emisiunilor
TV de știri și a programelor de
actualități. Pot să înțeleg majoritatea
filmelor în limbaj standard. Pot să înțeleg un discurs lung,
chiar dacă nu este clar structurat,
iar conexiunile sunt numai impli cite
și nu semnalate în mod explicit.
Pot să înțeleg programe de
televiziune și filme fără prea mare
efort. Nu am nicio dificultate în a
înțelege limba vorbită, indiferent
dacă este vorba de comunicarea
directă sau în transmisiuni radio
sau TV, chiar dacă ritmul este cel
rapid al vorbitorilor nativi, cu
condiția de a avea timp să mă
familiarizez cu un anumit accent.
Pot să citesc articole și rapoarte pe
teme contemporane, în care autorii
adoptă anumite atitudini și puncte de
vedere. Pot să înțeleg proză literară
contemporană. Pot să înțeleg texte faptice și
literare lungi și complexe, sesizând
diferențele stilistice. Pot să înțeleg
articole specializate și instrucțiuni
tehnice lungi, chiar dacă nu se
referă la domeniul meu. Pot să citesc cu ușurință ori ce tip
de text, chiar dacă este abstract
sau complex din punct de vedere
lingvistic sau din punctul de vedere
al structurării, de exemplu
manuale, articole specializate și
opere literare.
Pot să comunic cu un grad de
spontaneitate și o fluență care fac
posibilă participarea normală la o
conversație cu interlocutori nativi. Pot
să particip activ la o conversație în
situații familiare, exprimându -mi și
susținându -mi opiniile. Pot să mă exprim fluent și
spontan, fără a fi nevoie să -mi
caut cuvintele în mod pr ea vizibil.
Pot să utilizez limba în mod flexibil
și eficient în relații sociale și în
scopuri profesionale. Pot să -mi
formulez ideile și punctele de
vedere cu precizie și să -mi
conectez bine intervențiile de cele
ale interlocutorilor mei. Pot să particip fără efort în orice
conversație sau discuție și sunt
familiarizat(ă) cu expresiile
idiomatice și colocviale. Pot să mă
exprim fluent și să exprim cu
precizie nuanțe de sens fine. În
caz de dificultate, pot să reiau
ideea și să -mi restructurez
formularea c u abilitate, în așa fel
încât dificultatea să nu fie sesizată.
Pot să prezint descrieri clare și
detaliate într -o gamă vastă de
subiecte legate de domeniul meu de
interes. Pot să dezvolt un punct de
vedere pe o temă de actualitate,
arătând avantajele și dezavantajele
diferitelor opțiuni. Pot să prezint descrieri clare și
detaliate pe teme complexe,
integrând sub -temele, dezvoltând
anumite puncte și terminându -mi
intervenția cu o concluzie
adecvată. Pot să prezint o descriere sau
argumentație cu claritate și fluență,
într-un stil adaptat contextului, cu o
structură logică eficientă, care să
ajute auditoriul să sesizeze și să
rețină punctele semnificative.
Pot să scriu texte clare și detaliate
într-o gamă vastă de subiecte legate
de domeniul meu de interes . Pot să
scriu un eseu sau un raport
transmițând informații sau argumen –
tând în favoarea sau împotriva unui
punct de vedere. Pot să scriu scrisori
subliniind semnificația pe care o
atribui personal evenimentelor și
experiențelor. Pot să mă exprim prin tex te clare,
bine structurate, dezvoltând
punctele de vedere. Pot să tratez
subiecte complexe într -o scrisoare,
eseu sau raport, subliniind
aspectele pe care le consider
importante. Pot să selectez un stil
adecvat destinatarului. Pot să scriu texte clare, cur sive,
adaptate stilistic contextului. Pot
să redactez scrisori, rapoarte sau
articole complexe, cu o structură
logică clară, care să -l ajute pe
cititor să sesizeze și să rețină
aspectele semnificative. Pot să
redactez rezumate sau recenzii ale
unor lucrări de specialitate sau
opere literare.
– 12 – PROGRAMA – LIMBA ENGLEZĂ
pentru Testele de Competență Lingvistică Generală și Specială – TCLG și TCLS
ÎNȚELEGERE -ASCULTARE (Ia)
PROGRAMA
Competențe:
– distingerea ideilor generale din text;
– sesizarea inform ației solicitate;
– identificarea funcțiilor și tiparelor de intonație.
Tipuri de texte:
– monolog;
– prezentare tip curs sau conferință.
TIPURI de
EXERCI ȚII
Multiple choice:
e.g. When stopped by the police, how is the motorist advised to behave ?
A. He should say nothing until he has seen his lawyer.
B. He should give only what additional information the law requires.
C. He should say only what the law requires.
D. He should in no circumstances say anything .
Sentence completion:
e.g. ……….. is one of the best known artists of all times.
ÎNȚELEGERE -CITIRE (Ic)
PROGRAMA
I. Competențe
A. Citirea rapidă a unui text pentru:
1. înțelegerea de ansamblu.
2. obținerea de informații specifice.
3. identificarea etapelor unei argumentații.
4. identificarea exemplelor aduse în sprijinul unei argumentații.
B. Citirea unui text de mai mare întindere, utilizând strategii diverse.
C. Utilizarea materialului nonverbal și a aparatului de referință (ilustrații, diagrame,
grafice).
D. Deducerea înțelesului cuvintelor din context.
II. Cunoștințele necesare pentru înțelegerea textului.
A. Lexic. Cuvinte cu mai multe înțelesuri, sinonime, antonime, omonime.
B. Structura propoziției, a frazei și a discursului.
1. Conjuncții coordonatoare, subordonatoare și alți conectori logici.
2. Elemente de coe ziune (referință, substituție, elipsă).
3. Mărci discursive (semnalarea succesiunii episoadelor, organizarea discursului și
punctul de vedere al autorului).
III. Texte extrase din manuale, reviste, ziare, colecții de articole de specialitate.
TIPURI d e
EXERCI ȚII
Exercițiile se
bazează pe
secțiunea de
Citire
(Reading)
din test. True or False statements.
T F
e.g. James Bond was afraid of the Russian spy. □ □
Multiple choice
The word fortuitous in line 26 is closest in meaning to
a. random.
b. crammed.
c. pressed.
d. fortunate.
– 13 – SCRIERE (S)
PROGRAMA
I. Competențe
Candidatul poate să utilizeze eficient și adecvat:
A. funcții comunicative : să sfătuiască, să sugereze, să compare, să propună, să își ceară scuze,
să recomande, să ceară, să facă o comandă, să reclame, să invite, să promită, să se
angajeze (să…), să reasigure, să informeze, să mulțumească, să își exprime recun oștința,
să avertizeze, să încurajeze, să ceară ajutorul, să ceară informații, să dea exemple etc.
și
B. moduri discursive : să explice, să descrie, să nareze, să prezinte, să convingă, să argumenteze.
II. Cunoștințele necesare pentru producerea textului s cris
1. Lexic folosit corect și adecvat la temă și la registrul discursiv.
2. Ortografiere corectă.
3. Gamă adecvată de cunoștințe gramaticale, care face ca exprimarea scrisă să fie clară și
eficientă.
4. Organizarea ideilor în progresie logică.
5. Marca rea explicită gramaticală sau lexicală a relațiilor între părțile de propoziții,
propoziții, paragrafe.
6. Organizarea grafică a discursului: marcarea paragrafelor și folosirea corectă a
punctuației.
7. Respectarea formatului specific tipului de text produ s ca răspuns la cerințe.
III. Tipuri de texte produse ca răspuns la cerințe
S1.Răspunsul la un email
S2.Eseul argumentativ
TIPURI de
EXERCI ȚII
S1. You have received the following email:
Dear_________,
I want to thank you again for spending this week end with me and my friends at
my summer house in the mountains. I hope you enjoyed it as much as I did. I
hope you had a safe trip home: I know how crowded roads are on Sunday night.
By the way, my friends loved meeting my study mate and truly enjoyed your
company. I hope to see you soon,
Best wishes,
John
Answer in 1 20-150 words, as follows:
1. Thank John for his hospitality.
2. Describe what you enjoyed most during your stay.
3. Ask him to join you on a trip the following weekend.
S2. In 250-280 words writ e an essay on the topic below:
University students should not be penalized for illegally downloading ebooks,
music, movies, or computer games. Do you agree or disagree?
The following steps are required:
1. Introduce the debate topic by providing a context and discussing its importance .
Make your position clear.
2. Give one idea opposing your position and prove it wrong, insufficient, or
irrelevant.
3. Give two ideas supporting your position and base them on proof or explanations.
4. Finally, write an appropri ate conclusion by summing up the evidence supporting your
position and make a recommendation or suggest a solution to the problem.
– 14 – VORBIRE -EXPRIMARE (Ve) ȘI VORBIRE -CONVERSAȚIE (Vc)
PROGRAMA
I. Competențe lingvistice (lexicală, gramaticală, seman tică și fonologică).
II. Competență sociolingvistică (adaptarea exprimării la relațiile sociale; registru oficial
și neoficial; exprimarea politicoasă).
III. Competență pragmatică
a. discursivă: organizare tematică și coerență discursivă
b. funcțională:
microfuncții: a da și a cere informații, a exprima și a descoperi atitudini, a cere/a sugera;
macrofuncții: descrierea, narațiunea, comentariul, explicația, demonstrația, expunerea,
argumentația, persuasiunea etc.
scheme de interacțiune :
întrebare – răspun s
declarație – acord/refuz
cerere/ofertă/scuze – acceptare/refuz
salutări/ toast – răspuns
Teme pentru interviu :
Prezentarea candidatului, familia, studii, localitatea de origine, locuința, intenții
profesionale, pasiuni, preocupări, o zi de muncă/ studi u, lecturi etc.
Teme de discu ție:
Prietenie, timp liber, sport și mișcare, profesii, mijloace de transport, comunicarea în
lumea modernă, problemele lumii contemporane, planuri și realizări etc.
TIPURI de
EXERCI ȚII
Questions and requests for inform ation
Interview
Pictures:
– single pictures for descriptions;
– sequences of pictures for narration.
Role play:
e.g. Student A:
You want your father/ mother (played by your colleague) to increase your pocket
money. He/ She is resist ant to the idea. Try to make her change her mind.
Student B: Your son/ daughter (played by your colleague) wants you to increase his/
her pocket money. Explain why this is not possible and try to convince him/ her to
give up the id ea.
Discussion:
(between candidates)
e.g. 1. There is too much sport on television.
e.g. 2. Your school has a substantial budget to spend on improving facilities. The
following have been suggested as possible purchases for school:
video equipment; a swimming pool; computer equipment; a mini -bus; a sauna.
Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of each suggestion with your partner
and try to reach an agreement on the most suitable. Make other suggest ions if you
wish.
BIBLIOGRAFIE RECOMANDATĂ
Jordan, R.R., Academic Writing Course , Nelson, 1992
Leech, G., Svartik, J., A Communicative Grammar of English , Longman, 1972
Smith, Mike and Glenda. A Study Skills Handbook , Oxford, Oxford Univer sity Press, 1991
Soars, John and Liz, Headway Intermediate , Oxford, Oxford University Press, 1995
Soars, John and Liz, Headway Upper -Intermediate , Oxford, Oxford University Press, 1995
Vince, Michael, Advanced Language Practice , Heinemann, 1991
Vince, Mich ael, Intermediate Language Practice , Heinemann, 1997
– 15 – Sample tests
Listening
– 16 – Ia Listening Comprehension (Approx. 20 minutes)
You will hear a text on the topic below divided into two parts. Each part will be repeated twice.
A Wandering Mind
PART ONE : You have one minute to look at questions 1 to 6.
Write the letter of the correct answer in the boxes provided, according to what you
hear. Only one answer is correct. Your
answers
1. Neuroscientists used to find daydreaming
A. alarming;
B. annoying;
C. worrisome. 1
2. Researchers have discovered that daydreaming
A. can help one achieve his/her goals;
B. protects the brain ;
C. hardly ever happens . 2
3. Mind wandering is
A. a psychological disor der;
B. a deliberate fantasy;
C. involuntary daydreaming. 3
4. People’s minds wander
A. only when they are interrupted;
B. only when they sleep;
C. to fight the boredom of their current task. 4
5. Mind wandering is a mechanism that helps people
A. deal with stress;
B. keep track of complex pursuits.
C. relax on a beach. 5
6. Students’ minds often wander from a professor’s lecture to the more significant issue of
A. finding study partners;
B. mating;
C. evolutionary biology. 6
You will hear part one again. Then you will have 15 seconds to write your final answers.
PART TWO : You have one minute to look at questions 7 to 12.
Complete the sentences, in the boxes provided, according to what you hear.
7. Mind wandering is an unsafe when you drive too close to a car
that may brake unexpectedly.
8. ‘Mindless reading’ is a complete of time.
9. In a laboratory, researchers ask subjects to report mind wandering
while they are reading.
10. People can notice some of their br ain’s lapses when in a state of “ -awareness.”
11. When people ‘zone out’, they are no longer that their minds wander.
12. According to researchers, people ‘zone out’ about of the time.
You will hear part two again. Then you will have 15 seconds to write your final answers.
– 17 – KEY
Listening Comprehension (12×0.5=6 points)
A Wandering Mind
PART ONE PART TWO
1 B 7 strategy
2 A 8 waste
3 C 9 episodes
4 C 10 meta
5 B 11 aware
6 B 12 10 (ten) percent/ 10%
A Wandering Mind
PART 1:
In the past, daydreaming was often considered a failure of mental discipline, or worse.
Freud labeled i t infantile and neurotic. Psychology textbooks warned it could lead to
psychosis . Neuro scientists complained that the rogue bursts of activity on brain scans
kept interfering with their studies of more important mental functions (1).
But now that researchers have been analyzing those stray thoughts, they’ve found
daydreaming to be remarkabl y common — and often quite useful. A wandering mind can
protect you from immediate perils and keep you on course toward long -term goals (2).
Sometimes daydreaming is counterproductive, but sometimes it fosters creativity and
helps you solve problems.
Mind wandering, as psychologists define it , is a subcategory of daydreaming (3), which is
the broad term for all stray thoughts and fantasies, including those moments you
deliberately set aside to imagine yours elf winning the lottery or accepting the Nobel. But
when you’re trying to accomplish one thing and lapse into “task -unrelated thoughts,”
that’s mind wandering (3).
During waking hours, people’s minds seem to wander about 30 percent of the time,
according to estimates by psychologists who have interrupted people throughout the day
to ask what they’re thinking. If you’re driving down a straight, empty highway, your mind
might be wandering three -quarters of the time. People assume mind wandering is a bad
thing, but if we couldn’t do it during a boring task, life would be horrible (4).
Imagine if you couldn’t escape mentally from a traffic jam. You’d be s tuck contemplating
the mass of idling cars, a mental exercise that is much less pleasant than dreaming about
a beach and much less useful than mulling what to do once you get off the road. There’s
an evolutionary advantage to the brain’s system of mind wan dering: while a person is
occupied with one task, this system keeps the individual’s larger agenda fresher in mind .
It thus serves as a kind of reminder mechanism , thereby increasing the likelihood that
– 18 – the other goal pursuits will remain intact and not ge t lost in the shuffle of pursuing many
goals (5).
Of course, it’s often hard to know which agenda is most evolutionarily adaptive at any
moment. If, during a professor’s lecture, students start checking out peers of the opposite
sex (6) sitting nearby, ar e their brains missing out on vital knowledge or working on the
more important agenda of finding a mate ? (6) Depends on the lecture.
PART 2:
But mind wandering clearly seems to be a dubious strategy , if, for example, you’re
tailgating a driver who suddenl y brakes (7). Or, to cite activities that have actually been
studied in the laboratory, when you’re sitting by yourself reading “War and Peace” or
“Sense and Sensibility.”
If your mind is elsewhere while your eyes are scanning Tolstoy’s or Austen’s words, you’re
wasting your own time (8). You’d be better off putting down the book and doing something
more enjoyable or productive than “mindless reading,” as researchers call it (8).
Yet when people sit down in a laboratory with nothing on the agenda except t o read a
novel and report whenever their mind wanders, in the course of a half hour they typically
report one to three episodes (9). And those are just the lapses they themselves notice,
thanks to their wandering brains being in a state of “ meta -awareness” (10).
Psychologists have also studied the many other occasions when readers aren’t aware of
their own wandering minds, a condition known in the psychological literature as “zoning
out.” (11) When experimenters sporadically interrupted people reading to as k if their
minds were on the text at that moment, about 10 percent of the time people replied that
their thoughts were elsewhere — but they hadn’t been aware of the wandering until being
asked about it (12).
(SOURCE: John Tierney -“Discovering the Virtues of a Wandering Mind”, June 29 2010 –
www. amira.amplify.com )
– 19 – Ia Listening Comprehension (Approx. 20 minutes)
You will hear a text on the topic below divided into two parts. Each part will be repeated twice.
The Day After Tomorrow
PART ONE: You have one minute to look at questions 1 to 6.
Write the letter of the correct answer in the boxes provided, according to what you
hear. Only one answer is correct. Your
answers
1. The nightmare scenario contemplated depicts
A. the threats posed by meltin g icebergs;
B. coastal flooding and climate warming;
C. the global threat of methane gas poisoning. 1
2. Geoengineering scientists say that their ideas on how to cool the planet
A. have to be tested first;
B. are safe enough and need no testing;
C. won’t work. 2
3. Geoengineering is supposed to use technology to. . . global changes.
A. cause ;
B. research;
C. monitor. 3
4. Some scientists suggest that more plankton and algae in the oceans lead to
A. more carbon in the atmosphere;
B. less iro n in the atmosphere;
C. less carbon in the atmosphere. 4
5. Geoengineers propose that we use some chemicals to make the atmosphere
A. cooler;
B. more reflective of sunshine;
C. hotter. 5
6. But climate geoengineering solutions are dangerous becau se
A. they are too simple.
B. of their unpredictable side effects ;
C. it’s too late for them to take effect. 6
You will hear part one again. Then you will have 15 seconds to write your final answers.
PART TWO : You have one minute to look at questi ons 7 to 12.
Complete the sentences, in the boxes provided, according to what you hear.
7. Geoengineering may make people think that protecting the environment has become .
Some scientists are against geoengineering solutions because they hav e not yet been and cannot be
8. . Further more they are also exceedingly 9. .
10. Some politicians support the geoengineers’ as an alternative
to regulatory policies.
11. Unintentionally, we started to geoengineer the planet years ago.
12. We can still things so as to make “hacking” the planet unnecessary.
You will hear part two again. Then you will have 15 seconds to write your final answers.
– 20 – KEY
Listening Comprehension (12×0.5=6 points)
The Day After Tomorrow
PART ONE PART TWO
1 B 7 unnecessary
2 A 8 tested
3 A 9 dangerous
4 C 10 solutions/ ideas
5 B 11 150
6 B 12 change
The Day After Tomorrow
Part 1:
Imagine that it is 2050 — or even 2020 — and you are the president. Your science adviser
has brought you alarmin g news: Greenland’s inland ice sheets are melting so fast that sea
levels are about to rise dramatically (1). Moreover, thawing Arctic permafrost is about to
pour huge quantities of heat -trapping methane gas into the atmosphere, which will make
the already roasting planet even hotter (1).
The crisis, your adviser tells you, is now.
What can you do?
Quite a bit, to hear some researchers tell it. They say it should be possible to
“geoengineer” the planet to cool its increasingly raging greenhouse fever. But they say
these possibilities must be tested now (2), so that when the world needs to act, th e
scientific community can offer responsible advice.
Geoengineering is generally defined as the application of engineering techniques to alter
the planet as a whole (3). As far as climate is concerned proposals fall into two groups.
The first involves re moving carbon from the atmosphere by, say, fertilizing oceans with
iron, to encourage the growth of plankton or algae. In theory, the plankton would absorb
the carbon and, when they die, take it with them as they sink to the ocean floor (4).
The second ap proach involves reflecting solar radiation back into space by, say,
spraying sulfate aerosols into the atmosphere to make the Earth , in effect, shinier (5).
– 21 – But these remedies are not necessarily simple and even their easy -to-envision
consequences (6) can be alarming. For example, encouraging plankton growth would
encourage the growth of the creatures that feed on plankton, potentially disrupting the
ocean food web. Sulfates in the atmosphere might disrupt rainfall in some areas, causing
droughts.
And then, of course, there are the “unknown unknowns,” things we won’t even know we
need to worry about until it is too late (6).
Part 2:
For some, the most worrisome thing about geoengineering is the idea that, once people
know about it, they will think of it as a technological quick fix that makes it unnecessary
to control emissions of greenhouse gases (7), an effort everyone takes pains to point out is
by far the most important step to be taken now.
For some scientists geoengineering proposals are untested , untestable (8) and
dangerous beyond belief (9). They fit them neatly into what they call a long tradit ion of
imaginative and speculative literature involving the ‘control’ of nature. But the ideas have
drawn favor especially among conservatives and libertarians who look for technological
rather than regulatory solutions for climate change (10).
Still, goo d intentions do not necessarily lead to good results. And so far, humanity’s
record of environmental manipulation does not inspire confidence.
All the while, humanity is already engaged in a gigantic geoengineering experiment, one
that has been under way, however inadvertently, since people started large -scale burning
of fossil fuels 150 years ago (11). So far, the world’s efforts to act together on the problem
have been, to be charitable, unimpressive.
The lesson might therefore lie not in figuring out h ow to “hack the planet” but rather to
change things so that planetary geoengineering will not be needed at all (12).
(SOURCE: Cornelia Dean, June 28, 2010 The New York Times )
– 22 – Ia Listening Comprehension (Approx. 20 minutes)
You will hear a text on the topic below divided into two parts. Each part will be repeated twice.
When Adventure Tourism Kills: Waiving Your Right to Life?
PART ONE: You have one minute to look at questions 1 to 6.
Write the letter of the correct answer in the boxes provided, according to what you
hear. Only one answer is correct. Your
answers
1. Markus Schneider went diving with the sharks
A. because he wanted to write an adventure book.
B. to escape his monotonous life as an attorney.
C. for reasons that have remained unkn own. 1
2. Schneider’s death on February 24 was caused by
A. a massive heart attack.
B. a leg injury.
C. swimming in frozen waters. 2
3. Swimming in shark -infested waters is a high -risk activity like
A. white -water rafting, mountain climbing and deep sea diving.
B. white -water drafting, rock climbing and deep ocean diving.
C. white -water battling, trainspotting and ocean sailing. 3
4. Professor Lidsky is an expert on
A. torture.
B. torrents .
C. torts . 4
5. The tour operator may be liable for Schneider’s death
A. if it didn’t use reasonable care.
B. because shark watching is illegal.
C. because it didn’t use a reasonable cage . 5
6. The Scuba Adventures website advertised
A. great shark eating experiences .
B. safe shark feeding expedi tions.
C. caged shark feeding adventures. 6
You will hear part one again. Then you will have 15 seconds to write your final answers.
PART TWO : You have one minute to look at questions 7 to 12.
Complete the sentences, in the boxes provided, acc ording to what you hear.
7. In an uncontrolled the divers’ safety cannot be ensured.
8. Sharks in the Bahamas can grow up to feet in length.
9. Schneider’s family might win the trial in a civil court if law applied.
10. Under Florida law, a claim would not be allowed.
11. A waiver contract may be if the risks are not clearly spelled out.
12. An alternative to swimming with the sharks is an aquarium.
You will hear part two again. Then you will have 15 seconds to write your final answer s.
– 23 – KEY
Listening Comprehension (12×0.5 =6 points)
When Adventure Tourism Kills: Waiving Your Right to Life?
PART ONE PART TWO
1 C 7 environment
2 B 8 13
3 A 9 federal (admiralty)
4 C 10 negligence
5 A 11 void(ed)
6 B 12 visiting
When Adventure Tourism Kills: Waiving Your Right to Life?
Part 1:
No one goes on an adventure tour with the thought that he won't make it back alive. The
whole point is to go to the limits and live to tell the tale. It's unclear what Markus
Schneider though t (1) when he signed up for a late February dive that could put him face –
to-face with killer sharks spanning 18 feet in length — without a cage to separate him
from the man -eaters. He surely didn't expect to end up dead. But the 49 -year-old attorney
from A ustria, died on February 24 after being bitten in the leg (2) while swimming with the
sharks in the Bahamas.
Every year hundreds of people die while living life to the fullest — battling white –
water rapids, climbing the world's tallest mountain peak, desc ending to the depths of the
ocean (3). These extreme sports are inherently dangerous and you take your chances. Or
do you? "The thing about these high -risk activities is that if you're going to participate in
them you assume a certain kind of risk," says Prof. Lyrissa Lidsky, who teaches tort law
(4) at the University of Florida. In the case of Schneider, the question is whether the tour
operator failed to use reasonable care (5) when he took a group of tourists diving for
sharks without using cages. "Is th e thing that killed Schneider something that you
normally associate with shark watching?" Lidsky asks, " Or, is it something that could
have been avoided had the company used reasonable care? " (5)
The tour, provided by Scuba Adventures of Riviera Beach, promoted its dives as
great shark expeditions. The company also made clear the divers would be in the water
without any cages while the sharks were being fed (6) — a practice which is banned in
Florida. "To insure the best results we will be filling the wate r with fish and fish parts," the
Scuba Adventures website stated. "Consequently, there will be food in the water at the
same time as the divers. Please be aware that these are not 'caged' dives; they are open
– 24 – water experiences. We will have crew members in the water at all times to insure diver
safety ."(6)
Part 2:
Rodney Barreto, chairman of the Florida Wildlife Conservation Commission, claims there's
no way the crew could ensure the safety of the divers. "That's not a controlled
environment ," (7) Barret o says . "There's no way you know whether a three -foot shark or a
13-foot shark is coming." (8) "We're not discouraging people to go diving," Barreto adds.
"We're telling them to be responsible and obey the law. One of the reasons they went to
the Bahamas i s they were doing something outside the law."
Whether Schneider's family could win if they took the case to civil court depends a
lot upon what law applies — Florida law or federal admiralty law. Admiralty law would
apply if the ship transported passenger s between a port in the United States and a foreign
country. The federal law would allow a negligence claim ; (9) Florida law would restrict
such a claim (10). Florida holds that waivers signed by a person participating in high -risk
activity such as skydivi ng or shark watching are valid; the reason why these waivers are
valid is that these people are knowingly engaging in risky activity.
If Florida law prevails, all recourse may not be lost for Schneider's family. Lidsky
explains that a lot depends upon the wording of the waiver. Sometimes a court will void a
contract because that contract fails to spell out the risk (11), she says. Still, she adds, the
best bet is to avoid risky behaviour in the first place. But if the thrill seeker in you won't
allow for t hat, at least check out whether the company respects proper safety standards.
Then again, if you want to see a shark close up, you just might want to visit an aquarium
(12).
By Siobhan Morrissey Time Monday, Mar. 03, 2008
– 25 – Ia Listening Comprehension (A pprox. 20 minutes)
You will hear a text on the topic below divided into two parts. Each part will be repeated twice.
Obama and the Messiah Complexity
PART ONE: You have one minute to look at questions 1 to 6.
Write the letter of the correct answer in the boxes provided, according to what you
hear. Only one answer is correct. Your
answers
1. Who wrote the book Why We Can’t Wait ?
A. Barack Obama;
B. Martin Luther King;
C. an African president. 1
2. Some people saw Obama’s election as a sign
A. of the end of racism in America;
B. of the end of the post -racial age;
C. of the beginning of a racial age. 2
3. Equal rights regardless of race
A. can be guaranteed only by an African American president;
B. can be observed only among ordinary cit izens;
C. presuppose equal chances and protection under the law. 3
4. The Democrats’ loss of the Massachusetts seat in the Senate was shocking because
A. the president is a Democrat himself;
B. Democrats used to be popular in Massachusetts ;
C. it spoi led the president’s anniversary. 4
5. Who has been dissapointed in president Obama’s reforms so far?
A. The Republicans;
B. Some Democrats;
C. The speaker. 5
6. When his friend was arrested, Obama
A. refused to intervene on his friend’s behalf;
B. was at his friend’s home;
C. accused the police of incompetence. 6
You will hear part one again. Then you will have 15 seconds to write your final answers.
PART TWO : You have one minute to look at questions 7 to 12.
Complete the sentences, in the boxes provided, according to what you hear.
7. Dr. King and Jesse Jackson were Moses -like , according to Obama.
8. The younger generation of leaders had to deal with more discrimination.
9. Obama blamed his reaction on the law enforcement’ s history of
discriminating against African Americans and Latinos.
10. Many Americans unrealistically expect Obama to perform miracles in no more than a .
11. People need to be reminded that Obama is not their saviour but their .
12. Both Americans and their fellow Democrats have to keep fighting
for justice and equality.
You will hear part two again. Then you will have 15 seconds to write your final answers.
– 26 – KEY
Listening Comprehension (12×0.5=6 points)
Obama and the Messiah Comple xity
PART ONE PART TWO
1 B 7 leaders
2 A 8 sophisticated (racial)
3 C 9 long
4 B 10 year
5 B 11 president
6 C 12 African
Obama and the Messiah complexity
Part 1: Obama's first year has shown that the United States is not a post -racial
society. But it does give us renewed hope for equality.
On Monday the United States celebrated the birthday of Martin Luther King with a
nation al holiday. It cast my mind back to 1963, when he wrote the book Why We
Can't Wait (1), in response to those who said it was "too early" to make America equal
for all, regardless of race. On Wednesday the US marked another anniversary – of the
inauguration of the first African American president .
Barack Obama's election was seen by many as the dawn of the "post -racial" age (2),
where we no longer needed to talk about equality. So if it was too soon when King
was writing, and it's to o late now, tell me: when will it be time?
In reality, the racial age will not be over until the law guarantees all citizens equal
opportunity and protection (3). And we must ultimately judge this not from the White
House down but from ordinary houses up.
Obama's anniversary celebrations this week were marred by the crucial loss of a
Democra t seat in the Senate – and, shockingly, it was in Massachusetts, which has
traditionally had a huge democratic majority (4).
From his high a year ago, Obama has lost support among Republicans who hate his
healthcare reforms , and also among Democrats, some of whom believe his reforms
didn't go far enough (5), and many of whom oppose his escal ation of the war in
Afghanistan. But I think he's done very well. Yes, some of the euphoria has gone, but
people forget what he inherited: a nation engaged in two wars and on the brink of
financial collapse.
Without doubt, some of the criticism directed ag ainst Obama has been racially
motivated. And some say he shouldn't have got involved, for instance, when his
– 27 – friend, Professor Henry Louis Gates , was arrested in his own home. Obama said the
police department had acted "stupidly" (6); but I don't think it was a mistake to say
that, despite the backlash against his intervention.
Part 2: Four years ago, Senator Obama spoke in Selma, Alabama, at the annual
commemoration of the 1965 civil rights marches which took place there. He talked of
a Moses generation of leaders (people like Dr King and Jesse Jackson) (7) and a
Joshua generation of younger leaders. For this younger group, the issues were not
about seats on the bus , or the denial of voting rights; they were about racial profiling
by the police and other state agencies. We didn't have Jim Crow, the segregation
laws. Instead we ha d Master James Crow Esq: the same thing, but done in a more
sophisticated way (8).
So it was natural for Obama to treat the Prof Gates case like this; he was reacting
according to what he knew. He later retracted the "stupid" comment. But at the time
he'd also said: "What I think we know separate and apart from this incident is that
there's a long history in this country of African Americans and Latinos being stopped
by law enforcement disproportionately (9). That's just a fact." He never went back on
this. And I think he did the right thing.
In some respects Obama faces a greater challenge now than before he was elected.
Many Americans never really expected him to win the presidency, but it seems they
all expected him to change their lives and the world wi thin a year (10).
We need to remember that he ran for president , not for Messiah (11). The defeat
in Massachusetts is a reminder that Obama already had a vociferous opposition; and
if the majority of African Americans, along with the wider Democratic family, feel
that we can somehow take our foot off the gas, we'll witness many more defeats (12).
We've lost this battle but I believe we will still win the war, and in doing so we will
offer hope to all Americans that greater justice and equality can be a reality.
(SOURCE: Al Sharpton , guardian.co.uk , Thursday 21 January 2010 18.00 GMT)
– 28 –
– 29 –
Reading
– 30 – General English
Reading C omprehension (35 minutes)
Read the following text and then answer the questions on the next page.
Put a Stop to Waste
To eat a chocolate the box has to be taken out of a paper bag, the cellophane wrapper has to be
torn off, the lid opened and the paper r emoved. The chocolate itself has to be unwrapped from
its own piece of paper. But this insane amount of wrapping is not only for luxuries . It is
more and more difficult to buy anything that is not done up in cellophane, polythene or paper.
The shopper is n ot interested in the wrapping. Useless wrapping accounts for much of the
garbage of each London household. So why is it done? Some of it, like the cellophane on meat,
is necessary, but most of the rest is simply competitive selling. This is absurd. Packagi ng is
using up the scarce energy and resources and is messing up the environment.
Not much research is being carried out on the costs of alternative types of packaging. How easy
is it for local authorities to salvage paper, pulp it, and re -cycle it as egg -boxes? Would it be
cheaper to plant another forest? Paper is the material most used for packaging – twenty million
paper bags are apparently used in Great Britain each day – but very little is salvaged.
A machine has been developed that pulps paper then m akes it into packaging, e.g. egg -boxes
and cartons. This could be easily adapted for local authority use. It would mean that people
would have to separate their garbage into paper and non -paper, with a different dust bin for
each. Paper is the material mos t easy to re -cycle, and now with massive increases in paper
prices, the time has come when collection by local authorities could be profitable.
Re-cycling already happens with milk bottles, which are returned to the dairies, washed and
refilled. But both glasses and paper are being threatened by the growing use of plastic. More
and more dairies are experimenting with plastic bottles and it has been estimated that if all the
milk bottles necessary were made of plastic, then British dairies would be making e nough
plastic tubing to encircle the Earth every five or six days.
The problem is plastic does not rot. Some environmentalists argue that the only solution to the
problem of ever growing mounds of plastic containers is to do away with plastic altogether in
the shops, a suggestion unacceptable to many manufacturers who say there is no alternative to
their handy plastic packs.
It is evident that more research is needed into the recovery and re -use of various materials and
into the cost of collecting and re -cycling containers as opposed to producing new ones.
Unnecessary packaging intended to be used just once, and making things look better so more
people will buy them, is clearly becoming increasingly absurd. But it is not so much a question
of doing away with packaging as using it sensibly. What is needed now is a more sophisticated
approach to using scarce resources for what is, after all, a relatively unimportant function.
(SOURCE: The Sunday Times , January, 1998)
– 31 –
Decide whether the followi ng statements are true or false according to the text and
then write the letter ‘T’ if they are true or ‘F’ if they are false in the boxes on the
right. Your
decision:
T or F
1. Too many products nowadays are wrapped in unnecessary packaging. 1
2. Most London families refuse to throw away packaging. 2
3. The countryside is being spoilt by the overproduction of packaging. 3
4. In future paper and glass will replace plastic wrapping and containers. 4
5. Most of the 20 million paper bags used each day are recovered and re -used. 5
6. There is no danger that plastic will ever replace glass and paper. 6
Write in the boxes on the right the letter (A -D) of the answer which best reflects the
meaning of the text. Only one answer is correct. Your
answers
7. The local authorities in line 13 are:
A. the town council
B. the police
C. the paper manufacturers
D. the most influential citizens 7
8. If wrapping paper is to be re -cycled
A. more forests will have to be planted.
B. the use of paper bags wil l have to be restricted.
C. people will have to use different dustbins for their rubbish.
D. the local authorities will have to reduce the price of paper. 8
9. British dairies are
A. producing enough plastic tubing to go round the world in less than a week.
B. giving up the use of glass bottles.
C. increasing the production of plastic bottles.
D. re-using their old glass bottles. 9
10. This insane amount of wrapping is not only for luxuries in paragraph 1 means that
A. not enough wrapping is being used for luxuries .
B. more wrapping is being used for luxuries.
C. it is not only for luxury products that too much wrapping is used.
D. the wrapping used for luxury products is not necessary. 10
11. The environmentalists think that
A. more pla stic packaging should be used.
B. plastic is the most convenient form of packaging.
C. too much plastic is wasted.
D. shops should stop using plastic containers. 11
12. The author thinks that
A. the function of packaging is not important.
B. people will soon stop using packaging altogether.
C. not enough research has been done into the possibility of re -cycling.
D. the cost of re -cycling is so great that it is better to produce new materials than re -use old ones. 12
– 32 –
Special English: BIOLOGY AND GEOLOGY
Reading Comprehension (35 minutes)
Read the following text and then answer the questions on the next page.
Radiation in Space
Space is a dangerous place, not only because of meteors but also because of rays from t he sun
and other stars. The atmosphere again acts as our protective blanket on earth. Light gets
through, and this is essential for plants to make the food we eat. Heat, too, makes our
environments tolerable and some ultraviolet rays penetrate the atmosphe re. Cosmic rays of
various kinds come from outer space, but enormous quantities of radiation from the sun are
screened off. As soon as men leave the atmosphere, they are exposed to this radiation but there
are space suits and the walls of their spacecraft, if they are inside, do prevent a lot of radiation
damage.
Radiation is the greatest known danger of explorers in space. Dozes of radiation are measured
in units called ‘rems.’ We all receive radiation here on earth from the sun, from cosmic rays and
from the radioactive minerals. The ‘normal’ dose of radiation that we receive each year is about
100 milirems (0.1rem); it varies according to where you live, and this is a very rough estimate.
Scientists have reason to think that a man can put up with far more radiation than this without
being damaged; the figure of 60 rems has been agreed on. The trouble is that it is extremely
difficult to be sure about radiation damage. A person may feel perfectly well but the cells of his
or her sex organs may be damaged, a nd this will not be discovered until the birth of deformed
children or even grandchildren.
Early space probes showed that radiation varies in different parts of space around the
world. It also varies in time because, when great spurts of gas shoot out of the sun (solar
flares), they are accompanied by a lot of extra radiation. Some estimates of the amount of
radiation in space, based on various measurements in calculations, are as low as 10 rems per
year, others are as high as 5 rems per hour! Missions to the moon (the Apollo flights) have had
to cross the Van Allen belts of high radiation and, during the outward and return journeys the
Apollo 8 crew accumulated a total dose of about 200 milirems per man. It was hoped that there
would not be any large sola r flares during the times of the Apollo moon walks because the walls
of the LEMs (lunar excursion modules) were not thick enough to protect the man inside though
the command modules did give reasonable protection. So far, no dangerous doses of radiation
have been reported, but the Gemini orbits of the Apollo missions have been quite short. We
simply do not know yet how men are going to get on when they spend weeks and months
outside the protection of the atmosphere, working in a space laboratory or in a bas e on the
moon. Drugs might help to decrease the damage done by radiation, but no really effective ones
have been found so far. At present, radiation seems to be the greatest physical hazard to space
travellers, but it is impossible to say just how serious the hazard will turn out to be in the
future.
(SOURCE: C.F. Stoneman, Space Biology )
– 33 –
Decide whether the following statements are true or false according to the text and
then write the letter ‘T’ if they are true or ‘F’ if they are false in the boxes on the
right. Your
decision:
T or F
1. The atmosphere protects the Earth from excessive radiation. 1
2. Spacesuits and spacecrafts are perfect means to prevent radiation damage. 2
3. Meteors are the main dangers in space. 3
4. Everyone on earth is exposed exactly to the same amount of radiation. 4
5. It is easy to tell if a person has been harmed by radiation. 5
6. The crew on Apollo 8 were not protected from solar flares. 6
Write in the boxes on the right the letter (A -D) of the ans wer which best reflects the
meaning of the text. Only one answer is correct. Your
answers
7. The worst hazard for spacemen is
A. meteors .
B. radiation.
C. heat.
D. gas. 7
8. Scientists have fixed a safety radiation level of
A. 10 rems p er year.
B. 60 rems per year.
C. 100 milirems per year .
D. 5 rems per hour. 8
9. The spacemen were worried about solar flares when they were
A. exploring the surface of the moon.
B. setting up a moon base .
C. crossing the Van Allen belts .
D. waiting in the command module. 9
10. When men spend long periods in space, how will they protect themselves?
A. By taking special drugs.
B. By wearing special suits.
C. By using a protective blanket.
D. No solution has been found yet. 10
11. Which of the following is true?
A. The grandchildren of astronauts are deformed.
B. The children of astronauts have damaged sexual organs.
C. Radiation damage may show only in later generations.
D. Radiation does not seem to be very harmfu l. 11
12. Get on in line 32 means:
A. mount
B. walk
C. survive
D. advance 12
– 34 –
Special English : CHEMISTRY
Reading Comprehension (35 minutes)
Read the following text and then answer the questions on the next page.
Science in the Kitchen
The term molecular gastronomy was coined in 1988 by the late Nicholas Kurti, a renowned low
temperature physicist from Oxford University, and Hervé This, probably the only person in the
world with a PhD in molecula r gastronomy. Kurti became interested in applying his scientific
knowledge in the kitchen after he retired, and together with This, organised the first MG
workshop attended by chefs, scientists and food writers in Erice, Sicily. Now held bi -annually,
the n ext one will be in 2004.
Molecular gastronomists believe that cooking would improve if cooks understood more
about the processes involved, abandoned the misconceptions of the past and embraced
improvements based on rational models. How many amateurs have watched dejectedly as yet
another soufflé has failed to rise? The key, according to This, is to heat the soufflé from the
bottom because evaporating water pushes the other parts of the soufflé upward, and to whip
the egg whites as much as possible to achie ve maximum firmness.
A soufflé is based on a viscous preparation, for example a Bechamel sauce made of butter,
flour and milk, to which is added cheese, egg yolks and whisked egg whites. It used to be
thought that soufflés rose as the air bubbles in the e gg whites grew bigger as they got warmer.
However, This has measured the temperature and pressure inside a soufflé and calculated that
the bubbles can swell by 20 per cent at the most whereas soufflés can double in volume.
In fact, the soufflé rises as wa ter from the milk and yolks evaporates, and rises to the top of
the soufflé, pushing the layers of mixture upwards. This means that heating the container from
the bottom produces the best results. He has also found that the stiffer the egg whites, the
more the soufflé rises. The firmer egg whites have a greater volume to begin with, but the
firmness of the foam also prevents the bubbles from passing quickly through the soufflé and
escaping; slowly rising bubbles are better at pushing up the layers of mixtur e.
Improving on old recipes is one aspect of MG, but what about inventing new ones? This
developed his unappetisingly named 'chocolate dispersion' using the theory of emulsions, but
don't let this put you off. First, melt some chocolate, then wait until t he temperature is below
61°C. Add the melted chocolate to egg white while whipping the mixture. Finally, place in a
microwave oven for one minute. The initial dispersion of cocoa butter becomes a semi -solid
mass, or chemical gel, on heating – like a chocol ate cake without flour. Using a microscope,
This has studied how the protein network traps the chocolate droplets, resulting in a gellified
emulsion. The chocolate is dispersed twice: once in the emulsion and once in the gel. The
resulting cake, he says, h as a powerful aroma of chocolate – released by the high temperatures
– and a 'very tender texture'. Chocolate dispersion anyone?
(SOURCE: Maria Burke, Cooking with Chemistry )
– 35 –
Decide whether the following statements are true or false according to t he text and
then write the letter ‘T’ if they are true or ‘F’ if they are false in the boxes on the
right. Your
decision:
T or F
1. Hervé This is the only specialist in molecular gastronomy in the world. 1
2. Before heating, the soufflé is a thick and s ticky mixture. 2
3. A 20 % growth of the air bubbles determines a 100% growth of the soufflé. 3
4. The firmness of the whisked whites prevents the air bubbles from escaping the soufflé. 4
5. Hervé This named it “chocolate dispersion” because the reci pe is based on the theory of
emulsions. 5
6. The chocolate and egg white emulsion becomes a chemical gel when heated. 6
Write in the boxes on the right the letter (A -D) of the answer which best reflects the
meaning of the text. Only one answer is corr ect. Your
answers
7. Nicholas Kurti
A. was a coin collector.
B. was a cold person.
C. created the term “molecular gastronomy”.
D. will attend the 2004 molecular gastronomy workshop in Sicily. 7
8. Modern cooks should
A. adopt a scientific approach to cooking.
B. abandon completely the recipes of the past.
C. not misunderstand the rational models.
D. take advice only from molecular gastronomists. 8
9. In order to cook the perfect soufflé you must
A. boil water as it cooks.
B. bake it from the bottom up.
C. push the lid upwards.
D. use solid eggs. 9
10. While cooking a soufflé, . . . evaporate/evaporates.
A. milk and water
B. milk, water and yolks
C. only air bubbles
D. only water 10
11. According to the recipe, the melted chocolate must reach a temperature . . . 61° C before adding egg
whites.
A. lower than
B. higher than
C. of
D. within a range of 11
12. The protein network of the egg white captures
A. the chocolate molecules.
B. small drops of chocolate.
C. the chocolate gel.
D. Hervé This. 12
Special English: GEOGRAPHY / ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENC ES
– 36 –
Reading Comprehension (35 minutes)
Read the following text and then answer the questions on the next page.
Earthquakes
Let us take a brief look at the planet on which we live. As Earth hurtles through space at a
speed of 70, 000 miles an hour, it spins, as we al know, on its axis, which causes it to be
flattened at the Poles. Thus if you were to stand at sea level at the North or South Pole you
would be 13 miles nearer the centre of the Earth than if you stood on the Equator. The Earth is
made up of three major layers – a central core, probably metallic, some 4 000 miles across, a
surrounding layer of compressed rock, and to top it all a very thin skin of softer rock, only
about 20 to 40 miles thick – that’s about as thin as the skin of the apple, talking in relative
terms. The pressure on the central core is unimaginable. It has been calculated that at the
centre it is 60 million pounds to the square inch, and this at a temperature of perhaps 10, 000
degrees Fahrenheit. Oil borings down to 20, 000 feet have shown that the deeper they go, the
hotter it becomes. The temperature of the earth at the centre is estimated to be anything
between 3, 000 and 11, 000 degrees Fahrenheit.
But even so the deepest man has yet penetrated is about 10, 000 feet. This hole, the Robinson
Deep Mine in South Africa, barely scratches the surface; so great is the heat at the 10, 000 feet
that were it not for an elaborate air -conditioning system, the miners working there would be
roasted. The Earth’s interior, therefore, would seem to be of liquid metal – and evidence for this
is given by the behaviour of earthquakes.
When an earthquake occurs, shock waves radiat e from the centre just as waves radiate
outwards from the point where a stone drops into a pond. And these waves pulsate through the
earth’s various layers. Some waves descend vertically and pass right through the earth,
providing evidence for the existenc e of the core and an indication that it is fluid rather than
solid. Thus, with their sensitive instruments, the scientists who study earthquakes, the
seismologists, can in effect X -ray the earth.
Northern India, and more especially that part of Northern Pa kistan known as Baluchistan, is a
particularly seismic area. In Baluchistan one of the greatest earthquake disasters of modern
times occurred in 1935, when the town of Quetta was destroyed and 30,000 people lost their
lives. Today, Quetta is the home of a geophysical observatory where scientists make a special
study of earthquakes. One of the practical tasks of the seismologists in Quetta has been to
calculate ways of making buildings safe against earthquake tremors, and nowadays all houses
in the town are built according to seven approved designs. As a result, in a great earthquake
near Quetta only a few years ago, practically all the buildings stood up and no lives were lost.
Iceland is one of the most active volcanic regions of the world. And it was to Ic eland that Jules
Verne sent the hero of his book A Journey to the Centre of the Earth . This intrepid explorer
clambered down the opening of an extinct volcano and followed its windings until he reached
the Earth’s core. There he found great oceans, and con tinents with vegetation. This conception
of a hollow earth we now know to be false. In the 100 years since Jules Verne published his
book, the science of vulcanology, as it is called, has made great strides.
So, scientists believe that this tremendous heat is caused by the breaking down of radio -active
elements, which release large amounts of energy and compensate for the loss of heat from the
earth’s surface. If this theory is correct, then we are living on top of a natural atomic
powerhouse.
(SOURCE: Radio UNESCO)
– 37 –
Decide whether the following statements are true or false according to the text and
then write the letter ‘T’ if they are true or ‘F’ if they are false in the boxes on the
right. Your
decision:
T or F
1. If you stand at the Equ ator you will be closer to the centre of the Earth than if you stand at the
Poles. 1
2. The shock waves from an earthquake cannot pass through the Earth’s central core. 2
3. Earthquakes often occur in Baluchistan. 3
4. All houses in Quetta have the same design. 4
5. Jules Verne suggested that the center of the Earth is hollow. 5
6. It is not known exactly how hot it is at the centre of the Earth. 6
Write in the boxes on the right the letter (A -D) of the answer which best reflects the
meaning of the text. Only one answer is correct. Your
answers
7. The outer layer of the Earth is compared to the skin of an apple because:
A. it is only 20 to 40 miles thick.
B. it is thin in proportion to Earth’s mass.
C. it is relatively thin comp ared with the central core.
D. it is softer than the other layers. 7
8. Which of the following is not true? It is thought that the interior of the Earth is not solid because
A. there is great pressure at the centre .
B. earthquake waves can mo ve vertically.
C. the outer layer is made of rock.
D. the heat at the centre is too great. 8
9. The Robinson Deep Mine in South Africa is
A. too deep to work in .
B. too hot to work in.
C. no longer in use.
D. very close to the surface. 9
10. Since the publication of Jules Verne’s book it has been proved that:
A. the centre of the Earth is not hollow.
B. oil borings cannot go deeper than 20,000 feet.
C. the earth is hot at the centre because heat is lost at the surface.
D. the earth i s in danger. 10
11. Which of the following is closest in meaning to hurtles in the text (line 2)?
A. travels
B. moves at great speed
C. revolves
D. wanders 11
12. Which of the following is closest in meaning to intrepid in the text (line 37 )?
A. intelligent
B. inspired.
C. dauntless.
D. careful.
12
– 38 –
Special English : HISTORY and PHILOSOPHY
Reading Comprehension (35 minutes)
Read the following text and then answer the questions on the next page.
The Lib rary of Alexandria
The Library of Alexandria is a legend. Not a myth but a legend. The destruction of the library of
the ancient world has been retold many times and attributed to just as many different factions
and rulers, not for the purpose of chronicl ing that edifice of education, but as a political
slander. Much ink has been spilled, ancient and modern, over the 40,000 volumes housed in
grain depots near the harbour, which were supposedly incinerated when Julius Caesar torched
the fleet of Cleopatra’s brother and rival monarch. So says Livy, apparently, in one of his lost
books, which Seneca quotes. The figure of Hypatia, a fifth -century scholar and mathematician
of Alexandria, being dragged from her chariot by an angry Pagan -hating mob of monks who
flayed her alive then burned her upon remnants of the old Library, has found her way into
legend as well, thanks to a few contemporary sources which survived. Yet while we know of
many rumours of the destruction of “The Library” (in fact, there were at least three different
libraries coexisting in the city), and know of whole schools of Alexandrian scholars and
scholarship, there is scant data about the whereabouts, layout, holdings, organization,
administration, and physical structure of the place.
The Lib rary of Alexandria was founded at a unique place and time, which allowed its
scholars to draw on the deductive techniques of Aristotle and Greek thought, in order to apply
these methods to the knowledge of Greece, Egypt, Macedonia, Babylonia, and beyond. T he
location of Alexandria, as a center of trade, and in particular as the major exporter of writing
material, offered vast opportunities for the amassing of information from different cultures and
schools of thought. Its scholars’ deliberate efforts to com pile and critically analyze the
knowledge of their day allowed for the first systematic, long -term research by dedicated
specialists in the new fields of science suggested by Aristotle and Callimachus. Whole new
disciplines, such as grammar, manuscript pre servation and trigonometry were established.
Moreover, the fortuitous collection of documents in an Egyptian city allowed the transmission
and translation of vital classical texts into Arabic and Hebrew, where they might be preserved
long after copies were lost during the Middle Ages in Europe. Alexandria and its cousins, the
Lyceum, Academy, and the younger Pergamon library, were probably the prototypes both for
the medieval monastery and universities. Finally, the methods of research, study, and
informati on Library are much the same as those used today, but just as the medium of linear
scrolls gave way to books in its halls, we now are watching the transformation from books to
multilayered documents in the electronic medium.
(SOURCE: http://co smopolis.com)
– 39 –
Decide whether the following statements are true or false according to the text and
then write the letter ‘T’ if they are true or ‘F’ if they are false in the boxes on the
right. Your
decision:
T or F
1. The Library of Alexandria stands f or several libraries and schools in the city. 1
2. In one of his books, Seneca accuses Caesar of burning the Library. 2
3. There are at least three accounts of the destruction of the Library. 3
4. Alexandria evolved into a cultural centre because it was also a centre of trade. 4
5. Many classical texts survived as Arabic and Hebrew translations. 5
6. The Library of Alexandria stored scrolls not books. 6
Write in the boxes on the right the letter (A -D) of the answ er which best reflects the
meaning of the text. Only one answer is correct. Your
answers
7. Depots in line 6 means:
A. freighters
B. warehouses
C. ships
D. museums 7
8. Hypatia was murdered by
A. a Pagan mob.
B. a hating Pagan mob.
C. monks who hated Pagans.
D. Pagan monks. 8
9. Flayed her alive in line 10 means:
A. whipped her to death
B. skinned her alive
C. beat her to death
D. killed her 9
10. Amassing in line 21 means:
A. intensification
B. growth
C. agglomeration
D. accumulation 10
11. The Library of Alexandria became . . . for medieval universities.
A. a symbol
B. an ideal
C. a model
D. a guide 11
12. Fortuitous in line 26 means:
A. pressing
B. crammed
C. fortunate
D. random 12
– 40 –
Special English :
LAW/ POLITICAL SCI ENCES/ ADMINISTRATIO N/ JOURNALISM/
PUBLIC RELATIONS
Reading Comprehension (35 minutes)
Read the following text and then answer the questions on the next page.
Selection of Judges
There has been much criticism of the legal system and in particular of t he judges. Outspoken
criticism or ‘judge bashing’ has almost become a national sport. We hear so much of the judges
being typically white, middle class, middle aged and male. Judges, we are told, should have
more in common with the people on whom they pass sentence (although most people would not
want criminals to act as judges). They should be more representative of the general population
and should include more women and more members of ethnic minorities. The Lord Chancellor’s
department is well aware of this criticism, but one of the difficulties in achieving a higher
proportion of women or ethnic minorities is the way judges are selected in Britain.
Every judge, as well as having good judgment and being fair, patient and clever, has to have
a brilliant legal mind. Perhaps in Britain, where the law is based so much on precedent , it is
especially vital to have only judges who are outstanding lawyers, at least at the High court level
and above. For in these courts, not only does each case have to be decided on its facts, but, if it
involves a point of law, it may well be used in other cases as authority for decades, even
centuries to come.
In some other European countries, the method of selection of judges operates much earlier
in a lawyer’s career. A law student can apply to study to become a judge. Given the European
system of selection, not only are newly appointed judges there much younger than in Britain,
but women and members of ethnic minorities are much better represented.
The system in Britain is different. Reluctance to change the modern system in Britain may
be partly because some feel that, though you can spot a high I.Q. in a young man or woman of
twenty, what constitutes an outstanding lawyer is more elusive, and that naturally leading
lawyers , equipped to try cases, only emerge through court room and litigation experience and
struggle over thirty years.
In Britain, the careers of high -flying barristers are noted by existing judges and, when the
moment is right, a new judge is appointed by the Lord Chancellor. Of course the judge bashers
say that the appointers choose people entirely like themselves, which ends up producing a
judiciary of old, old fashioned, members, – all white and male. But they were law students thirty
years ago, when there were far fewer women or black candidates. Nowadays, about 50% of the
law students are women, or members of ethnic minorities. It may not be something to be too
proud of that things will probably have advanced in 30 years’ time, but the law, in all its
aspects, grinds exceedingly slow, and at least it’s a step in the right direction.
(SOURCE : Modern English Teacher, vol. 2 No. 3 Jan. 2003)
– 41 –
Decide whether the following statements are true or false according to the text and
then write the letter ‘T’ if they are true or ‘F’ if they are false in the boxes on the
right. Your
decision:
T or F
1. The selection of judges is similar in Britain and in the continental European countries. 1
2. According to recent critics, there is no “just representati on” at the level of the judiciary. 2
3. In the superior courts, British judges must have outstanding legal abilities. 3
4. In Britain, judges tend to be selected from among the most competitive barristers. 4
5. By 2033 the number of female and blac k judges in Britain will have decreased. 5
6. According to this article, criticism of the judicial system is totally unjustified. 6
Write in the boxes on the right the letter (A -D) of the answer which best reflects the
meaning of the text. Only one answer is correct. Your
answers
7. Which of the following is an example of ‘judge bashing,’ as described in the article?
A. Quoting scandalous remarks made by a judge.
B. Beating up a judge.
C. Criticising the exclusion of women and ethnic minorit ies from the judiciary.
D. Praising a judge. 7
8. The meaning of precedent in line 13 is
A. ancestor
B. decision of a higher court
C. litigant
D. predecessor 8
9. In British superior courts, judicial rulings may be based on
A. questions of both fact and law.
B. questions of neither fact nor law.
C. future rulings in similar cases.
D. American case -law. 9
10. The 3rd paragraph states that in other European countries there are more women judges
because of
A. more fem ale candidates.
B. fewer male candidates.
C. much brighter female candidates.
D. much earlier career opportunities. 10
11. Most of the British judges
A. are members of the religious minorities.
B. are young and inexperienced.
C. are old and old fashioned.
D. enjoy flying at high altitudes. 11
12. What is the purpose of this article?
A. to claim that judge bashers in Britain have no reason to complain.
B. to suggest that there is hope for a slow improvement of the judge s election system in Britain.
C. to point out how much the British legal system differs from the continental one.
D. to list the qualities a British judge must possess. 12
– 42 –
Special English : MATHEMATICS and COMPUTER SCIENCE
Reading Compreh ension (35 minutes)
Read the following text and then answer the questions on the next page.
Theory is the poetry of mathematicians or computer scientists, and, like poetry, its essence is
metaphor – the sudden equation of separate ideas that elucidates, systematizes, and unites
them for the first time.
“To be or not to be”, cries the poet. “E=mc2”, exclaims the theorist.
What distinguishes the theorist among scientists is the power not only to describe but to
discover the secrets of nature in the metap hors and mathematics.
Probably one of the theorist’s most valuable auxiliary, however, is as a catalyst to invention. He
attempts to spark the inventive process by exploring new ideas, creating new metaphors that
bridge the discontinuities in nature, by bu ilding mathematical models of reality.
Following the scientific literature, maintaining personal touch with key members of the
scientific community, staying abreast of critical research going forward in the laboratories –
these are other functions carried on by the industrial theorist both for his own benefit and for
that of his management.
His responsibility is to advise research management on what significant scientific trends are
developing, what new lines of research should be opened, where current act ivities should be
curtailed and so on. To counsel, to catalyse, to create – these are the responsibilities of the
modern industrial theorist.
In the final analysis, all these three responsibilities stem directly from his power not only to
describe but to d iscover the secrets of nature in the metaphors of mathematics
By the end of World War II the practical power of theory had been demonstrated and the
theorist had begun to see that his numerical metaphors could have social and economic
meaning.
One of frequ ently repeated dilemmas nowadays is whether there is any need for theorists? In
the case of the transistor, the need for theorists was immediate and obvious. In the case of the
computer, it was less so at first. But since about 1940 teams of information pr ocessing
theorists had been led across a no -man’s land of switching networks and stored programs
toward such astonishing goals as machines that adapt themselves to changing situations, that
read print, and that even display rudimentary intelligence.
(SOUR CE: Viorica Dănilă, Engleza Tehnică, Ed. Tehnică. 1982)
– 43 –
Decide whether the following statements are true or false according to the text and
then write the letter ‘T’ if they are true or ‘F’ if they are false in the boxes on the
right. Your
decision:
T or F
1. The metaphor is an equation of separate ideas united for the first time. 1
2. One of the theorist’s oldest roles is to support invention. 2
3. The theorist doesn’t stimulate practical activities. 3
4. The theorist only describes the secr ets of nature. 4
5. Numerical metaphors can be expressed in terms of social and economic meaning. 5
6. The importance of theorists was seen from the first days of the computer. 6
Write in the boxes on the right the letter (A -D) of the answer whi ch best reflects the
meaning of the text. Only one answer is correct. Your
answers
7. According to the text, what is the importance of the theorist?
A. The theorist attempts to make people create new metaphors .
B. The theorist uses the metaphors of m athematics to find the secrets of nature.
C. The theorist deals with and explains new metaphors in mathematics.
D. The theorist explains surrounding nature by using metaphors. 7
8. Where do the scientist’s most important responsibilities come from?
A. From his power to penetrate the secrets of nature .
B. From his power to catalyse the act of creation.
C. From his power to advise research .
D. From his power to know everything about critical research. 8
9. Is there any need for the orists nowadays?
A. Yes, but their role is not so obvious .
B. No, because machines got adapted to real situations without their help .
C. Yes, especially as the computer industry has developed .
D. No, as our modern world is pragmatically rather than theore tically oriented. 9
10. The expression staying abreast in line 12 may mean:
A. be informed
B. surpass
C. stay behind
D. demonstrate 10
11. The word curtailed in line 17 may mean:
A. expanded
B. reduced
C. made important
D. clarified 11
12. What would be the best title for the text?
A. The Metaphors of Mathematics
B. Theory as Poetry of Mathematics
C. The Research Theorist vs. the Industrial Theorist
D. The Importance of the Research Theorist 12
– 44 –
Special English: PHILOLOGY / THEATRE AND TELEVISI ON
Reading Comprehension (35 minutes)
Read the following text and then answer the questions on the next page.
SENSE AND SENSIBILITY
Ten years ago, the noted critic Leslie Halliwell wrote in his filmgoer’s companion that Jane
Austen, “the most delightful of English novelists, has been oddly neglected by the screen.” How
much things have changed! Ang Lee’s 1995 SENSE AND SENSIBILITY was the third movie
adaptation of Austen’s that year. With a script by Emma Thompson, for w hich she received an
Academy Award, and a magnificent cast, which also included Hugh Grant, Kate Winslet, Alan
Rickman and Imelda Staunton, Ang Lee’s SENSE AND SENSIBILITY transformed Jane Austen’s
novel from a fine piece of fiction into an amusing, releva nt and stunning film.
At its heart SENSE AND SENSIBILITY is the story of two sisters, Elinor and Marianne
Dashwood. At a time of crisis in their lives – their father has died and left them penniless – they
fall in love and, in both cases, it is disastrous. Elinor’s beloved is already promised to someone
else, and Marianne’s heartthrob is a cad who finally jilts her. Battling through this heartache,
they use each other’s strengths to find happiness once again.
Elinor, the practical and dutiful one, devel ops her romantic sentimentality, whilst
Marianne, previously so emotional, starts to adopt a more logical approach to the world. The
moral of the story is that to find true happiness, sentimentality has to be mixed with good
sense, and good sense has to be mixed with sentimentality.
The film does full justice to this story, and adds also the delightful high -society gossip
and intrigue that makes Jane Austen such a joy to read. But, on top of this, Emma Thompson’s
script allows a whole series of insights an d vignettes that add to the collection of romantic
misunderstandings and disasters that weave through the two girls’ lives. As a result the film is
both amusing and tear -jerking, intriguing and accessible. And curiously, though the romance
and courtships t hat are central to the story occur two hundred years ago, the events still seem
relevant today.
Jane Austen was born in 1775 in Hampshire, England. As was typical for the time, she
was educated at home and never lived apart from her family. She began writ ing for amusement
when she was a child though it wasn’t until she was in her twenties that her first great novel,
SENSE AND SENSIBILITY, was completed. PRIDE AND PREJUDICE was written the following
year. Her other three great novels, MANSFIELD PARK, EMMA, and PERSUASION, were
completed when she was in her thirties.
(SOURCE: Speak Up , 6/1998)
– 45 –
Decide whether the following statements are true or false according to the text and
then write the letter ‘T’ if they are true or ‘F’ if they are false in the b oxes on the
right. Your
decision:
T or F
1. No film has ever been made after any of Jane Austen’s novels. 1
2. Emma Thompson’s script is not her only contribution to the 1995 movie adaptation of Sense
and Sensibility . 2
3. Austen’s novel is the tra gic story of two women who fail miserably in love. 3
4. Ang Lee’s 1995 film is a faithful rendition of Austen’s novel. 4
5. Part of the film’s success comes from its romantic appeal to contemporary viewers. 5
6. Sense and Sensibility represents Au sten’s first major work. 6
Write in the boxes on the right the letter (A -D) of the answer which best reflects the
meaning of the text. Only one answer is correct. Your
answers
7. According to Halliwell, the fact that few films have been produced aft er Jane Austen’s work is
A. strange .
B. wonderful.
C. neglected .
D. natural . 7
8. In the text, the film is described as “tear -jerking.” This means that the film can make you
A. mad.
B. sad.
C. glad.
D. bad. 8
9. What is e mphasized in the third paragraph?
A. Sense is more important than sensibility in life.
B. Sentiments and emotions must be repressed.
C. Sense and sensibility are both necessary to achieve happiness in life.
D. True happiness is immoral. 9
10. The 1995 film version of Sense and Sensibility
A. comes very close to the novel.
B. does not resemble the novel.
C. uses the novel only as a starting point.
D. distorts the novel. 10
11. Emma Thompson’s script
A. insists too much on gossip and intrig ue.
B. represents an insightful reading of the novel’s plot.
C. is a romanticized version of the original.
D. is a disastrous version of the original. 11
12. What is the purpose of this article?
A. to discourage people from reading Jane A usten’s Sense and Sensibility .
B. to encourage people to buy Jane Austen’s novels.
C. to point out how little Ang Lee’s 1995 film resembles the original.
D. to review the film and praise its achievements. 12
– 46 –
Special English: PHYSICAL ED UCATION and SPORT
Reading Comprehension (35 minutes)
Read the following text and then answer the questions on the next page.
Skiing down Everest
Katmandu, May 17
Mr Yuichiro Miura, the Japanese skier, told reporters in Katmandu how he narrowly escape d
death in his attempt to ski down Mount Everest earlier this month.
His descent began at 25,918 ft above sea level and ended when he fell 100 yards short of a
crevasse, he said. In the final seconds, as he hurtled down the mountainside at about 50 miles
per hour, dodging boulders in his path, he was convinced that he was about to be killed. The
fall saved his life.
Mr Miura’s 1.8 mile ski run on May 6 was elaborately organized. He first climbed 820 ft above
the starting point for an easy 30 -second run down the South Col in normal alpine skiing
conditions on excellent snow. Within a few hours, after spending more than 90 minutes
checking his equipment , he began his fast descent.
He said that he began the downhill run as soon as winds decreased and within fiv e seconds he
was rushing headlong at 100 miles an hour. The 40 degree slope soon narrowed abruptly ,
with exposed rocks on either side , and the winds buffeted him from both sides.
He found that at times his brake parachute was failing to slow his descent, a nd he tried to
check his speed by pressing the edges of his skis harder into the snow.
A minute later he found that he was skiing over undulating rock -strewn ice. He hit one of the
boulders at an altitude of about 23,600 ft, went out of control, slithered, lost his right ski and
crashed into a boulder. Almost unconscious, he finally came to a halt close to the crevasse. But
he was unhurt.
(SOURCE: http://newsbalance.com)
– 47 –
Decide whether the following statements are true or false according to the te xt and
then write the letter ‘T’ if they are true or ‘F’ if they are false in the boxes on the
right. Your
decision:
T or F
1. When he checked his speed, Mr Miura actually meant to slow down. 1
2. He finally lost control because he hit a boulder. 2
3. During his fall Mr Miura was in perfect control of the situation. 3
4. Occasionally his brake parachute was not working properly. 4
5. He nearly lost consciousness when his flight ended. 5
6. Unfortunately, Mr Miura’s attempt to ski down the Ev erest failed. 6
Write in the boxes on the right the letter (A -D) of the answer which best reflects the
meaning of the text. Only one answer is correct. Your
answers
7. Why did Mr. Miura’s fall save his life?
A. Because he did not fall too hard.
B. Because otherwise he would have been killed by crashing into a boulder.
C. Because it stopped his attempt to ski down the Everest.
D. Because otherwise he would not have been able to avoid going into a crevasse. 7
8. He climbed 820 feet
A. to find the best point to start his descent.
B. and then started the descent of Everest.
C. and started his descent 30 seconds later.
D. and went down to the south Col a few hours later. 8
9. Checking his equipment (line 12) means:
A. putting on his equipment
B. making sure his equipment was right
C. collecting his equipment
D. cleaning his equipment 9
10. The 40 -degree slope soon narrowed abruptly (line 14) means:
A. it suddenly got steeper
B. Mr. Miura suddenly had less r oom on either side
C. it got much rougher suddenly
D. it got less steep suddenly 10
11. With exposed rocks on either side (line 15) means:
A. rocks stuck out of the snow all around him
B. rocks stuck out of the snow first on the one side, t hen on the other
C. rocks stuck out of the snow on both sides
D. there were cliffs on both sides 11
12. Mr. Miura was unable to slow down
A. because of the rocks.
B. because the edges of his skis weren’t working properly.
C. because of t he wind.
D. because he was going too fast and part of his equipment wasn’t working properly. 12
– 48 –
Special English : PHYSICS
Reading Comprehension (35 minutes)
Read the following text and then answer the questions on t he next page.
Shapes and Waves
The idea of shape having an influence on the functions taking place within it is not a new one.
A French firm once produced a special container for making yogurt, because that particular
shape enhanced the action of the micro -organism involved in the process. The brews of a
Czechoslovakian beer tried to change from round to angular barrels but found that this
resulted in a deterioration in the quality of their beer despite the fact that the method of
processing remained unchan ged. A Geman researcher has shown that mice with identical
wounds heal more quickly if they are kept in spherical cages. Architects in Canada report a
sudden improvement in schizophrenic patients living in trapezoidal hospital wards.
It is possible that a ll shapes have their own qualities and the forms we see around us
are the result of combinations of environmental frequencies. In the 18th century the German
physicist Ernst Chlandi discovered a way of making vibration patterns visible. He fixed a thin
metal plate on to a violin, scattered sand on the plate, and found that when drawn across the
strings, the sand arranged itself into beautiful patterns. These arrangements, now known as
Chlandi’s figures, have been extensively used in physics to demonstrate w ave function, but they
also show very well that different frequencies produce patterns with different forms. By
juggling around with powders of different densities and by playing notes with a wide range of
frequencies, it is possible to induce a pattern to take on almost any form. It is interesting, and
perhaps significant that Chladni’s figures most often resemble forms found in nature.
Concentric circles, such as the annual rings in a tree trunk; alternating lines, such as the
stripes on a zebra’s back; h exagonal grids, such as the cells in a honeycomb; radiating wheel
spokes, such as the canals in a jellyfish; vanishing spirals, such as those of shellfish – all these
commonly occur. The study of this phenomenon, the effect of waves on matter, is called
cymatics.
The basic principle of cymatics is that environmental pressures are brought to bear in
wave patterns and that matter responds to these pressures by taking a form that depends on
the frequency of waves. There are a limited number of frequencies inv olved, and nature tends to
respond to these in predictable ways, by repeating a number of limited functional forms. The
corkscrew pattern of an updraught of heated air is mirrored in the growth of a creeper twined
around a tree in the arrangement of the at oms in a molecule of DNA. The manta ray flows
through tropical waters with muscular waves that run in lines across its broad, flat back like
windblown patterns on the surface of the sea. Given the same problem, nature will usually find
the same solution. I t could not to this with such widely differing raw materials unless they were
responding to identical pressures.
(SOURCE: Lyan Watson, Supernature )
– 49 –
Decide whether the following statements are true or false according to the text and
then wr ite the letter ‘T’ if they are true or ‘F’ if they are false in the boxes on the
right. Your
decision:
T or F
1. The shape of an object has no effect on what happens inside. 1
2. The beer from angular barrels tasted better. 2
3. Mental patients get better in wards with a particular design. 3
4. Honeycomb grids resemble zebra stripes. 4
5. The same limited range of shapes is repeated in nature. 5
6. Very different substances produce the same shape when they are exposed to the same
influence s. 6
Write in the boxes on the right the letter (A -D) of the answer which best reflects the
meaning of the text. Only one answer is correct. Your
answers
7. The main idea of the first paragraph is that:
A. there is no rule in our choosing the shape of a container for general use.
B. round or spherical shapes are preferable in the food industry.
C. the shape of an object affects what happens inside.
D. the sole applications of shape are in the food industry and in medicine. 7
8. The ma in idea of the second paragraph is that:
A. all shapes have their own special qualities.
B. Chladni’s figures demonstrate the function of the waves.
C. a change in the frequency of vibration changes the shape of patterns.
D. geometric patterns are extremely common in nature. 8
9. Cymatics is the study of
A. the shapes found in nature .
B. the effect waves have on things.
C. the frequency of waves.
D. the effect of shape on function. 9
10. Which of the following statements is not tr ue, according to the third paragraph?
A. There is a limited number of shapes in nature.
B. Shape depends on wave frequency.
C. There are not many wave frequencies, therefore few shapes in nature.
D. Environmental pressures are identical. 10
11. Nature tends to produce a limited range of shapes because
A. the materials it uses are very similar.
B. the influences exerted on the matter are similar.
C. different densities combine with different frequencies.
D. there is only a limited number of forms which are functional. 11
12. Juggling around (line 18) means here:
A. trying out different arrangements
B. playing different tunes
C. doing the work of an acrobat
D. making different patterns 12
– 50 –
Special English : PSYCHOLOGY and EDUCATION SCIENCE
Reading Comprehension (35 minutes)
Read the following text and then answer the questions on the next page.
Teenagers and Aggression
At the age of 8, Ronald impressed his teachers as likeable and happy -go-lucky. In the course of
his second -grade year, his behaviour began to change ominously . Fellow third graders rated
him one of the most aggressive boys in class. He started fights for no apparent reason. He
pushed other children. He said mean things.
His parents told psychologist L eonard D. Eron of the University of Illinois at Chicago
Circle that Ronald was disobedient at home. He used foul language. He annoyed them. In
response, Ronald’s father frequently spanked him and washed his mouth out with soap. Eron,
who published Ronald’s case history, wrote that the punitive atmosphere – and his parent’s
lack of understanding – must have created a very frustrating atmosphere at home that probably
instigated Ronald to be aggressive both there and at school.
Ronald’s life was not without s ome pleasure. He liked to watch Maverick and Have Gun
Will Travel , two violence -filled television westerns, and episodes of The Three Stooges , a comedy
with aggression cloaked in clowning. Sometime after the age of 8, Ronald’s life, like the TV
shows he en joyed, was marked to an extraordinary degree by aggression. What made Ronald
aggressive?
Ever since a 1972 Surgeon General’s report suggested there might be a link between
violence on TV and aggression in children, researchers have debated the question. No one
disagrees with the fact that children spend a great deal of time in front of the screen. The A.C.
Neilsen Company, which reports on the popularity of a program through sophisticated sampling
of viewers, reported in 1982 that children between the age s of 6 and 11 watched close to
twenty -five hours of television a week. That amounts to more than one full day out of seven.
Youngsters aged 2 to 5 watched even more, some twenty -seven hours every week. What is the
effect of all this television watching?
(SOURCE: Arno F. Wittig. Psychology. An Introduction .1984)
– 51 –
Decide whether the following statements are true or false according to the text and
then write the letter ‘T’ if they are true or ‘F’ if they are false in the boxes on the
right. Your
decision:
T or F
1. Ronald made a good impression on his teachers throughout school. 1
2. Ronald was unreasonably aggressive at school. 2
3. Ronald’s father insisted that he should use soap whenever he washed. 3
4. The reason why Ronald did not obey his parents was because he was a spoilt child. 4
5. The Three Stooges is a comedy with clowns. 5
6. Official reports consider that TV violence is partly responsible for the abnormal behaviour in
children. 6
Write in the boxes on the right the letter (A -D) of t he answer which best reflects the
meaning of the text. Only one answer is correct. Your
answers
7. The text suggests that Ronald began to be extremely violent
A. from day one in school.
B. at around the age of 10.
C. in his second grade.
D. when he turn ed 8. 7
8. At home, Ronald was punished
A. rarely.
B. hardly ever.
C. quite often.
D. once in a while. 8
9. In what concerned TV shows, Ronald’s preference lay with
A. comedies.
B. westerns.
C. violent TV films and series.
D. all movies i ndiscriminately. 9
10. General opinions on the amount of time spent by children watching TV:
A. differed widely
B. varied
C. were in consensus
D. were inexistent 10
11. The A.C. Neilsen Company reported that a child aged 4 compared with a ch ild aged 7
A. watched more television.
B. watched less television.
C. spent more weeks watching TV.
D. ignored television. 11
12. Ominously (line 3) is closest in meaning to
A. for the better.
B. for the worse.
C. radically.
D. imperceptibly. 12
– 52 –
Special English : SOCIOLOGY
Reading Comprehension (35 minutes)
Read the following text and then answer the questions on the next page.
The Workhouse
What makes the hair stand on end even more than the harrowing tales of human need
contained in this readable and impressively researched history of the workhouse is that while
that hated Victorian institution may have disappeared, together with the Poor Laws that created
it, the attitudes behind them still exist and still dictate our policies towards the deprived.
Above all, there was and still is the belief that if the physically fit are poor it is because they are
idle only from choice. As far back as the sixteen century the law dictated: ‘If any man or woman,
able to wo rk should refuse to labour and live idly for three days, he or she should be branded
with a red -hot iron on the breast with the letter “V” and should be the slave for two years of any
person who should inform of such idler’.
We may not brand the unemployed wit red -hot iron today, but sear their minds with criticism
we do: “the deserving and undeserving poor still exist”. Thus it is easier for politicians to make
provisions for widows than for unmarried mothers, easier for charities to raise money for pets
(apparently blameless for their needs) than for the homeless, the poor or ex -prisoners.
The belief, belied by all the facts of economic life, that it is impossible to be poor and able –
bodied unless you are feckless or idle, leads to so -called ‘relief’ inst itutions that deliberately set
out to deter custom. That was the concept of the workhouse. One of its pioneers wrote: I wish to
see the workhouse looked to with dread by our labouring classes and the reproach for being an
inmate of it extend downwards from father to son… Let the poor see and feel that their parish,
although it will not allow them to perish through absolute want, is yet the hardest taskmaster,
the closest paymaster, and the most harsh and unkind friend they can apply to.’
Attitudes of the pa st? Not at all. Even today many local politicians and welfare officers will
defend the punitive conditions of hostels for the homeless as a necessary incentive to the
homeless to find alternative accommodation – no matter that it is sheer lack of accommoda tion
that makes them homeless in the first place.
It is shattering how the author’s descriptions of the workhouse coincide with some hostels for
the homeless that I have seen.
(SOURCE: Punch, August, 1996)
– 53 –
Decide whether the following statements are true or false according to the text and
then write the letter ‘T’ if they are true or ‘F’ if they are false in the boxes on the
right. Your
decision:
T or F
1. The attitudes generated by the Victorian Poor Laws have not been completely abolished. 1
2. ‘The belief’ is that poor people are the victims of misfortune. 2
3. The pioneers of the workhouse wanted the labouring classes to be afraid of it in order to
encourage them to find work and accommodation. 3
4. According to the passage, both widows a nd unmarried mothers are regarded as ‘deserving
poor’. 4
5. The author is shocked at the similarities between the workhouse and the modern day hostels for
the homeless. 5
6. According to the passage, public attitudes to those who do not work are no b etter than they once
were. 6
Write in the boxes on the right the letter (A -D) of the answer which best reflects the
meaning of the text. Only one answer is correct. Your
answers
7. This passage is most likely extracted from
A. a history book.
B. a book review.
C. a dictionary entry.
D. a fiction novel . 7
8. The word them in line 5 refers to
A. the harrowing tales of human need.
B. Victorian workhouses.
C. the workhouse and the Poor Laws.
D. the English policies towards the deprived . 8
9. The workhouse is/was
A. a Victorian hostel for the poor and the homeless.
B. a prison.
C. a home for the unmarried mothers, the homeless, the poor, and ex -prisoners .
D. a new type of hostel for people with nowhere to live. 9
10. What ‘makes the hair stand on end’, according to the author?
A. The harrowing tales of human need.
B. The history of the workhouse.
C. The fact that the workhouse has disappeared.
D. The fact that attitudes towards the poor have not changed. 10
11. The author talks about the idea that if people do not work it is because they do not want to.
This is
A. his personal belief.
B. a characteristically modern attitude.
C. a characteristically Victorian attitude.
D. an attitude that has existed at leas t since the sixteen century. 11
12. Belied (line 17) means :
A. proved
B. disproved
C. illustrated
D. concealed 12
– 54 – Special English : THEOLOGY
Reading Comprehension (35 minutes)
Read the following text and then an swer the questions on the next page.
Jesus
Jesus did not write any books; or if he did, which seems highly unlikely, they have not
survived. This means that an account of his ideas faces a special difficulty at the outset. It has
to depend for its sources not on his own work, as books on (say) Dante or Pascal or Aquinas
can do, but on what he is reported to have said and done. Naturally, this introduces an element
of unreliability from the start.
And it is not just in the area of his ideas that we are on uncertain ground. Even the
simple historical facts about his life are very few. We can, it is true, regard a few things as
virtually certain. Jesus was a religious teacher, and in about A.D. 28 -30 he was put to death by
crucifixion. When we turn to what ha ppened after that, the facts become more numerous. His
followers began to claim that he had risen from the dead and had ascended to heaven, where he
had taken his place as the Son of God. Those who held this belief gradually broke away from
the main stream of Jewish religion, and came to be known as ‘Christians’ because of their belief
that Jesus was the ‘Christ’, a Greek word which is the equivalent of the Hebrew ‘Messiah’ and
means ‘the anointed one’. The coming of this Messiah had been long expected by J ews. These
facts can be deduced from Roman and Jewish writings of the period, which supply enough
passing references to the death of Jesus to be certain that he really did exist, and was not just,
as has occasionally been suggested, a mythical figure inven ted by Christians. But with regard
to what happened before his death, we cannot be at all certain.
In order to find out why this is so, and as a preliminary to what may have been the ideas
of Jesus – and there must always be some element of ‘may have’ in it – we need to look at the
sources, chiefly the four Gospels found in the Christian Bible, which are Christianity’s own
account of its founder’s life and ideas. We need to look both at what they say about Jesus and
at the ways in which they differ from ea ch other, at their character as historical documents.
Jesus was certainly called ‘Jesus’. The name was so common that the early Church
would not have used it of him had it not been his real name. To be strictly accurate , ‘Jesus’ is
the Greek form. The Heb rew original was ‘Jeshua’, which like Joshua, was a shortened form of
Jehoshua meaning ‘he whose salvation is God.’
(SOURCE: Humphrey Carpenter. Founders of Faith . 1986)
– 55 –
Decide whether the following statements are true or false according to the text and
then write the letter ‘T’ if they are true or ‘F’ if they are false in the boxes on the
right. Your
decision:
T or F
1. Books about Dante are reliable because they analyze his original work. 1
2. Christ is a Hebrew word. 2
3. The four Gospels coincide on their reports about Jesus. 3
4. Christ and Jesus have an identical meaning. 4
5. The Gospels can be considered historical documents. 5
6. At the time there were many people bearing the name Jesus. 6
Write in the boxes on the righ t the letter (A -D) of the answer which best reflects the
meaning of the text. Only one answer is correct. Your
answers
7. In what concerns the subject of Jesus and writings, the text suggests that
A. Jesus most certainly did not write any books .
B. the books Jesus did write have not reached us.
C. Jesus must have written some books.
D. there is a strong possibility that Jesus wrote some books. 7
8. The text suggests that the most reliable facts about Jesus are:
A. his crucifixion and rea l life person .
B. his biography and real life person.
C. his ideas and teachings .
D. his crucifixion and his name. 8
9. Those who came to be called ‘Christians’ were:
A. the Jewish people .
B. those who claimed Jesus had ascended to heaven .
C. those who believed Jesus was the long awaited Messiah.
D. those who thought Jesus was real not mythical. 9
10. Accurate in line 29 means:
A. frank
B. direct
C. exact
D. explicit 10
11. What does the text propose as the most reliable proof that Jesus was a real person?
A. The Gospels.
B. The Jewish and Roman writings of the time.
C. His very name.
D. His was a witnessed death. 11
12. In what concerns the ideas of Jesus, the text suggests that:
A. we have a reliable account of them.
B. they can be found in the Gospels, which are historical documents.
C. we cannot be entirely sure what they were.
D. only the Gospels recorded them. 12
– 56 – KEYS
Reading Comprehension (12x 0.5=6 points) Ic
General English (pp. 30 -31)
True or False Multiple choice
1 T 7 A
2 F 8 C
3 T 9 D
4 F 10 C
5 F 11 D
6 F 12 C
Biology and Geology (pp. 3 2-33)
True or False Multiple choice
1 T 7 B
2 F 8 B
3 F 9 A
4 F 10 D
5 F 11 C
6 T 12 C
Chemistry (pp. 3 4-35)
True or False Multiple choice
1 F 7 C
2 T 8 A
3 F 9 B
4 F 10 D
5 T 11 A
6 T 12 B
– 57 –
Geography / Environmental Sciences (pp. 3 6-37)
True or False Multiple choice
1 F 7 B
2 F 8 B
3 T 9 D
4 F 10 A
5 T 11 B
6 T 12 C
History and Philosophy (pp. 3 8-39)
True or False Multiple choice
1 T 7 B
2 F 8 C
3 F 9 B
4 T 10 D
5 T 11 C
6 F 12 D
Law/ Political sciences/ Administration/ Journalism/ Public relations
(pp. 40-41)
True or False Multiple choice
1 F 7 C
2 T 8 B
3 T 9 A
4 T 10 D
5 F 11 C
6 F 12 B
– 58 –
Mathematics and Computer Science (pp. 42-43)
True or False Multiple choice
1 T 7 B
2 T 8 A
3 F 9 C
4 F 10 A
5 T 11 B
6 F 12 D
Philology / Theatre and Television (pp. 44-45)
True or False Multip le choice
1 F 7 A
2 T 8 B
3 F 9 C
4 T 10 A
5 T 11 B
6 T 12 D
Physical Education and Sport (pp. 46-47)
True or False Multiple choice
1 T 7 D
2 T 8 D
3 F 9 B
4 T 10 B
5 T 11 C
6 T 12 D
– 59 –
Physics (pp. 48-49)
True or False Multiple choice
1 F 7 C
2 F 8 C
3 T 9 B
4 F 10 D
5 T 11 B
6 T 12 A
Psychology and Education Science (pp. 50-51)
True or False Multiple choice
1 F 7 B
2 T 8 C
3 F 9 C
4 F 10 C
5 F 11 A
6 T 12 B
Sociology (pp. 52-53)
True or False Multiple choice
1 T 7 B
2 F 8 C
3 T 9 A
4 F 10 D
5 T 11 D
6 T 12 B
Theology (pp. 54-55)
True or False Multiple choice
1 T 7 A
2 F 8 A
3 F 9 C
4 F 10 C
5 T 11 C
6 T 12 B
– 60 –
Writing
– 61 –
S1 Email writing (20 minutes) University/ campus life (formal interaction)
You have received the following email:
Dear all,
In the attached document you will find the _____________ ___________ exam
results . I am particularly pleased with your performance, which proves
that you have successfully acquired the course content and are able to
make a competent use of it. To those of you who failed, and plan to sit the
re-examination , I wan t to remind you that the description , requirements
and study materials are on reserve for you at the library and also that I
am available during office hours, in case you need assistance.
I am very pleased to have had you as my students this semester. T hank
you for your class contributions and feedback, and good luck.
Best wishes,
Julia Perkins
Fill in the highlighted field with a course of your choice from your study years and
then answer in 120-150 words, as follows:
1. Complain about your low grade.
2. Explain why you think you deserved a higher grade.
3. Request that your paper be marked again. For correctors’
use only
Cer1
Cer2
Cer3
Impct
Limba
S1 Email writing (20 minutes) University/ campus life (informal interactio n)
You have received the following email:
Hi,
I am Susan Gerard, the British exchange student you, so graciously,
helped yesterday find the room of her mid -morning course. Remember?
You gave me your email address and suggested I contacted you if I needed
help settling in.
So I am going to take you up on your offer as I am in dire need of some
good advice. My laptop broke down and I need to have it fixed quickly or
find some other way of contacting my family on the Internet tonight. I
hate to be a pain i n the neck, but I am new to this country and don’t speak
the language, and have no one else to turn to.
Hope to hear from you soon,
Sue
Answer in 120 -150 words, as follows:
1. Present two options.
2. Suggest what you think is the best solution of the two.
3. Propose that you meet in order to help her out. For correctors’
use only
Cer1
Cer2
Cer3
Impct
Limba
– 62 – S1 Email writing (20 minutes) General topic (formal interaction)
You have received the following email:
Dear_________,
We have received your CV and letter of application for a summer job at the
Hilton Hotel in London. Based on the information you provided we have
selected you for a teaching position at our hotel’s childcare centre.
We provide such jobs to students from other countries in the hope that the
working experience will prove beneficial to their university studies.
If this job is convenient to you , please write an email of acceptance no later
than the end of the week.
Best wishes,
Julia Perkins
Answer in 120-150 words, as follows:
1. Express gratitude and enthusiasm at obtaining the teaching position.
2. Briefly explain why this experience will prove significant to your university studies.
3. Ask for information regarding convenient accommodation. For correctors’
use only
Cer1
Cer2
Cer3
Impct
Limba
S1 Email writing (20 minutes) General topic (informal interaction)
You have received the following email:
Dear_________,
I want to thank you again for spending this weekend with me and my frie nds
at my summer house in the mountains. I hope you enjoyed it as much as I
did. I hope you had a safe trip home: I know how crowded roads are on
Sunday night. By the way, my friends loved meeting my study mate and truly
enjoyed your company. I hope to see you soon,
Best wishes,
John
Answer in 120-150 words, as follows:
1. Thank John for his hospitality.
2. Describe what you enjoyed most during your stay.
3. Ask him to join you on a trip the following weekend.
For correctors’
use only
Cer1
Cer2
Cer3
Impct
Limba
KEY
Email writing (3 points) S1
(5 criterii x 6 puncte): 10 = 3 puncte
Criterii de evaluare:
1. Gradul de rezolvare a cerinței 1 (de la 0 la 6 puncte)
2. Gradul de rezolvare a cerinței 2 (de la 0 la 6 puncte)
3. Gradul de rezolvare a cerinței 3 (de la 0 la 6 puncte)
4. Impactul/ efectul asupra cititorului (Organizare, claritate, fluență, persuasiu ne, intenție, registru/ stil
adecvat.) ( de la 1 la 6 puncte )
5. Complexitatea limbii (Nivelul de complexitate al structurilor gramaticale și lexicale folosite preponderent corect.
Ortografia.) (de la 1 la 6 puncte)
NOTĂ : Copierea în răspuns a formulărilo r din cerințe se depunctează sever. Pentru neadecvarea la temă
și/ sau nerezolvarea cerințelor se acordă zero puncte . Email -ul nu se evaluează.
– 63 – S2 Essay writing (35 minutes) General topic / University/ campus life
In 250-280 words write an essa y on the topic below:
University students should not be penalized for illegally downloading ebooks,
music, movies, or computer games. Do you agree or disagree?
The following steps are required:
1. Introduce the debate topic by providing a context and discu ssing its importance . Make
your position clear.
2. Give one idea opposing your position and prove it wrong, insufficient, or irrelevant.
3. Give two ideas supporting your position and base them on proof or explanations.
4. Finally, write an appropriate conclusion by summing up the evidence supporting your
position and make a recommendation or suggest a solution to the problem. For correctors’
use only
Stil – –
Voc
Gram
Org
Arg
[ Intro + Con + Pro 1 + Pro 2 + Fin ]:5= Conț
S2 Essay writing (35 minutes) Law/ Political sciences/ Administration/ Journalism / Public relations
In 250-280 words write an essay on the topic below:
It should be mandatory for all citizens to vote in elections. Do you agree or
disagree?
The following steps are required:
1. Introduce the debate topic by providing a context and discussing its importance . Make
your position clear.
2. Give one idea opposing your position and prove it wrong, insufficient, or irrelevant.
3. Give two ideas supporting your position and base them on proof or explanations.
4. Finally, write an appropriate conclusion by summing up the evidence supporting your
position and make a recommendation or suggest a solution to the problem. For correctors’
use only
Stil – –
Voc
Gram
Org
Arg
[ Intro + Con + Pro 1 + Pro 2 + Fin ]:5= Conț
S2 Essay writing (35 minutes) Physical Education and Sport
In 250-280 words write an essay on the topic below:
Full contact sports, such as boxing, rugby, and martial arts, should be banned.
Do you agree or disagree?
The follow ing steps are required:
1. Introduce the debate topic by providing a context and discussing its importance . Make
your position clear.
2. Give one idea opposing your position and prove it wrong, insufficient, or irrelevant.
3. Give two ideas supporting your positio n and base them on proof or explanations.
4. Finally, write an appropriate conclusion by summing up the evidence supporting your
position and make a recommendation or suggest a solution to the problem. For correctors’
use only
Stil – –
Voc
Gram
Org
Arg
[ Intro + Con + Pro 1 + Pro 2 + Fin ]:5= Conț
– 64 – S2 Essay writing (35 minutes) Religion / Theology
In 250-280 words write an essay on the topic below:
Fanatic religious movements are dangerous for young people. Do you agree or
disagree?
The following steps are required:
1. Introduce the debate topic by providing a context and discussing its importance . Make
your position clear.
2. Give one idea opposing your position and prove it wrong, insufficient, o r irrelevant.
3. Give two ideas supporting your position and base them on proof or explanations.
4. Finally, write an appropriate conclusion by summing up the evidence supporting your
position and make a recommendation or suggest a solution to the problem. For c orrectors’
use only
Stil – –
Voc
Gram
Org
Arg
[ Intro + Con + Pro 1 + Pro 2 + Fin ]:5= Conț
S2 Essay writing (35 minutes) Natural sciences (Biology, Geology, Geography, Environmental sciences)
In 250-280 words wri te an essay on the topic below:
The development of renewable energy technologies such as wind energy,
hydroelectricity and solar power should be stimulated by the government. Do you
agree or disagree?
The following steps are required:
1. Introduce the deba te topic by providing a context and discussing its importance . Make
your position clear.
2. Give one idea opposing your position and prove it wrong, insufficient, or irrelevant.
3. Give two ideas supporting your position and base them on proof or explanations.
4. Finally, write an appropriate conclusion by summing up the evidence supporting your
position and make a recommendation or suggest a solution to the problem. For correctors’
use only
Stil – –
Voc
Gram
Org
Arg
[ Intro + Con + Pro 1 + Pro 2 + Fin ]:5= Conț
S2 Essay writing (35 minutes) Hard sciences (Mathematics, Computer science, Physics, Chemistry )
In 250-280 words write an essay on the topic below:
Computer literacy is essential today in scientific research. Do you agree or
disagree?
The following steps are required:
1. Introduce the debate topic by providing a context and discussing its importance . Make
your position clear.
2. Give one idea opposing your position and prove it wrong, insufficient, or irrelevant.
3. Give two ideas supporting your position and base them on proof or explanations.
4. Finally, write an appropriate conclusion by summing up the evidence supporting your
position and make a recommendation or suggest a solution to the problem. For correctors’
use only
Stil – –
Voc
Gram
Org
Arg
[ Intro + Con + Pro 1 + Pro 2 + Fin ]:5= Conț
– 65 – S2 Essay writing (35 minutes) Humanities (Philology, Theatre and television, Philosophy, History)
In 250-280 words write an essay on the topic below:
English shoul d be made the official language of the European Union . Do you
agree or disagree?
The following steps are required:
1. Introduce the debate topic by providing a context and discussing its importance . Make
your position clear.
2. Give one idea opposing your posi tion and prove it wrong, insufficient, or irrelevant.
3. Give two ideas supporting your position and base them on proof or explanations.
4. Finally, write an appropriate conclusion by summing up the evidence supporting your
position and make a recommendation or suggest a solution to the problem. For correctors’
use only
Stil – –
Voc
Gram
Org
Arg
[ Intro + Con + Pro 1 + Pro 2 + Fin ]:5= Conț
S2 Essay writing (35 minutes) Social sciences (Psychology, Sociology, Educational sciences)
In 250-280 words write an essay on the topic below:
Brutal fairy tales, such as Little Red Riding Hood, Snow White, or Bluebeard
should be banned from library shelves and parents should be warned against
reading them to their children. Do you agree or disagree?
The following steps are required:
1. Introduce the debate topic by providing a context and discussing its importance . Make
your position clear.
2. Give one idea opposing your position and prove it wrong, insufficient, or irrelevant.
3. Give two ideas supporting your position and base them on proof or explanations.
4. Finally, write an appropriate conclusion by summing up the evidence supporting your
position and make a recommendation or suggest a solution to the problem. For correctors’
use only
Stil – –
Voc
Gram
Org
Arg
[ Intro + Con + Pro 1 + Pro 2 + Fin ]:5= Conț
KEY
Essay writing (3 points) S2
((5 criterii x 6 puncte) – depunctare_Stil):10 = 3 puncte
Criterii de evaluare:
1. Complexitatea vocabularului (Nivelul de complexitate a vocabularului folosit și acuratețea acestuia.
Ortografia.) : de la 0 la 6 puncte
2. Complexitatea gramaticală (Nivelul de complexitate a structurilor gramaticale folosite și
preponderent corecte.) : de la 0 la 6 puncte
3. Organizare (Claritatea structurală a discursului: construirea paragrafelor în jurul ideilor principale și al
detaliilor care le susțin. Punctuația. Coeziunea și coerența între și în paragrafe. Fluența discursului.) : de la
0 la 6 puncte
4. Argumentație (Discurs logic, structurat, fundamentat; capacitate de analiză.) : de la 0 la 6 puncte
5. Conținut (Gradul de rez olvare a cerințelor.) : de la 0 la 6 puncte
6. Stil (Pentru neadecvarea la convențiile sociolingvistice proprii formatului și temei sau la registrul formal sau
neutru, se depunctează de la 1 la 3 puncte .)
NOTĂ : Pentru text mai scurt de 80 de cuvinte sau neadecvarea la temă și/ sau nerezolvarea
cerințelor, eseul nu se evaluează: se acordă zero puncte. Dacă textul este între 80-130 de cuvinte,
punctajele ob ținute la criteriile Vocabular, Gramatică, Organizare și Argumentare se reduc la
jumătate.
– 66 –
– 67 –
Speaking
Speaking
Test no.1
– 68 –
– 69 – SPEAKING TEST 1: MEANS OF TRANSPORT
TASK 1: Choose TWO pictures and answer at least ONE of the questions
below (2 minutes)
Describe the pictures chosen; talk about the means of transport the people
in the pictures have chosen and say why the people in the photographs have
decided to use them. Compare them with your own experience of various
means of transport.
Talk about the advantages and disadvantages of the means of transport in
the pictures you have chosen and imag ine the life standards of the people
using them.
You want to make a documentary about means and transport and
modern lifestyles . Compare the pictures and decide which situation you find
the most inspiring for your documentary. Explain why.
TASK 2: (3 minutes)
Have a short conversation about your long -distance travelling experiences and
the means of transport you have used to get to destination. Identify problems,
find solutions, give advice.
Your country is confronted with severe air pollution due to intense traffic.
Discuss with the other candidate what are the most appropriate measures the
government should take.
You are two parents who have just been informed that cycling will become
compulsory in secondary schools as a sports class. Discuss w ith the other
candidate the advantages and disadvantages of this initiative.
Speaking
Test
no.2
– 70 –
– 71 –
SPEAKING TEST 2: HOLIDAYS
TASK 1: Choose TWO pictures and answer at least ONE of the questions
below (2 minutes)
Describe and compare how the people in the pictures spend their holidays
and decide which appeals to you more. Explain why.
Talk about the advantages and disadvantage s of spending your holydays in
the ways shown. Consider leisure activities , tourist attractions , costs ,
comfort and safety .
You want to make a movie about how someone’s life can change on a
holiday trip. Compare the pictures and decide which situation you find the
most inspiring for your movie. Explain why.
TASK 2: (3 minutes)
Imagine that you meet for the first time in a train going to the seaside. Discuss
with the other candidate the reasons of your journey. Ask and offer useful
information about your common destination: accommodation, transport,
nightlife, etc.
Candidate A: You and your best friend want to spend the summer holidays
together. Try to convince him/ her that a trip to the mountains is the best
choice.
Candidate B: You and your best friend want to spend the summer holidays together. Try to
convince him/ her that a trip to the seaside is the best choice.
A tourist agency wants to use one of the pictures in its holiday best deals
advertisement. Discuss with the other candidate and decide on the most
appropriate one.
– 72 –
INSTRUCȚIUNI ȘI RECOMANDĂRI PENTRU PROBA ORALĂ (Ve + Vc):
Examinarea orală durează aproxima tiv 12 minute și este asigurată de doi profesori,
cu rol de examinator și evaluator. Candidații sunt examinați în perechi. Examenul
oral constă în trei părți: interviu, exprimare orală, conversație.
PARTEA I
Interviu -întrebări generale : localitatea natal ă, familia, pasiuni, interese
profesionale, planuri de viitor. Această parte se desfășoară în interacțiune cu
examinatorii. N u se evaluea ză. (2 minute)
PARTEA A II -A (exprimarea orală Ve)
Cerința 1: Exprimare cursivă pe baza unui suport vizual, timp de 2 m inute de
candidat, fără întrebări ajutătoare. Fiecare candidat primește câte un suport cu 5 -6
imagini grupate tematic, din care va trebui să aleagă cel puțin două. Atât
instrucțiunile primei cerințe, cât și tema testului sunt accesibile candidatului pe
suportul de hârtie, acesta având posibilitatea de a -și alege cerința cu gradul de
dificultate corespunzător nivelului său. Cerințele gradate ca dificultate ajută
candidatul, sugerându -i tipuri de răspuns de complexități diferite, astfel încât
acesta să aibă o cazia să -și demonstreze abilitățile lingvistice.
Candidatul nu este obligat să vorbească despre toate imaginile. El poate alege două
sau trei, în funcție de cât de accesibile și/sau interesante i se par. În această parte a
examenului, candidatul va descrie și va compara ceea ce vede în imagini, raportat la
tema anunțată. Candidatul va încerca să explice situațiile din imagini, cauzele sau
efectele lor posibile, sau să -și exprime opinia. Dacă i se cere să aleagă imaginea care
i se pare cea mai interesantă, v a trebui să explice alegerea.
ATENȚIE! Nu se acordă timp de pregătire (nu se fac notițe).
PARTEA A III -A (conversație Vc)
Cerința 2: Conversație între cei doi candidați , timp de 3 minute. În general,
examinatorul alege una din șase teme de conversație, gradate ca dificultate, bazate
pe cele două tematici alese. Examinatorul va selecta tema în funcție de nivelul de
limbă al celui mai slab candidat. În cazul în care conversația pe tema aleasă nu se
desfășoară corespunzător între candidați sau se încheie prea devreme, examinatorii
o pot propune și pe a doua. În această parte, candidatul va treb ui să -i adreseze
întrebări partenerului, cerându -i informații, să -i răspundă, la rândul său, acestuia,
exprimând și justificând opinii, să facă sugestii și să discute posibilități, să ia decizii
în colaborare, să -și exprime acordul sau dezacordul.
ATENȚI E! Nu monopoli zați conversația. În această parte a probei se evaluează
capacitatea candidatului de a iniția și gestiona un dialog.
IMPORTANT! Dacă nu înțelegeți instrucțiunile, cereți să vi se repete întrebarea.
Aceasta nu va constitui un motiv de depunct are.
SE EVALUEAZĂ:
Varietatea și corectitudinea sintactică și lexicală, fluența și pronunția.
(0-6 puncte: Ve)
Interacțiunea în conversație, încadrarea în tematică și coerența.
(0-6 puncte: Vc)
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